A 33 year old African American male with a known history of practicing unprotected anal sex with other males presents
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Get it written →A 33 year old African American male with a known history of practicing unprotected anal sex with other males presents to the emergency department with a 3 month history of subjective fever, chills, night sweats, and flu-like symptoms including pain, anorexia, and extreme fatigue. He states that despite going to multiple urgent care clinics and taking multiple antibiotics, he has only gotten worse. His temperature is currently 94.6 (normal 97.9-99.0), heart rate 180 (normal 60-95), respiratory rate 20 (normal 12-16); blood cultures which were sent to the lab were consistently positive for Cryptococcus Neoformans, a fungus. Which of the following is correct concerning this patient? The patient most likely has an opportunistic infection which typically does not affect immunocompetent patients. All of these are correct. The patient’s inability to mount a fever is suggestive of a worse prognosis. The patient will should have his blood sent for HIV testing. Health care personnel should not be judgmental when approaching the patient and discussing his sexual practices.
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