When performing a visual acuity test the nurse practitioner notes 20/30 in the left eye and 20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye chart. This means:
When performing a visual acuity test the nurse practitioner notes 20/30 in the left eye and 20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye chart. This means:
a) have the patient returning in two weeks for a follow up vision screen
b) dilated the eye and retest
c) refer the patient to an ophthalmologist
d) document this as a normal finding
2. The American psychiatric association’s diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorder defines Munchausen Syndrome By Proxy
a) a self-inflicted injury to gain attention
b) a caregiver making up or causing an illness or injury in a person under his or her care
c) an abusive behavior that does not involve the caregiver
d) a situation in which the abuser is often inattentive and uncaring toward the victim
Munchausen syndrome by proxy is a mental illness and a form of child abuse. The caretaker of a child, most often a mother, either makes up fake symptoms or causes real symptoms to make it look like the child is sick.
3. Symptoms of depression are a side effect of which neurotransmitter medication?
a) dopamine serotonin, norepinephrine
b) gabapentin
c) mil
d) cortisol
4. Which lesion is dark raised and asymmetric with irregular border? Quizlet Bates Chapter 20
a) Nevus
b) Actinic keratosis
c) Keratoacanthoma
d) Melanoma
5. A 32 years old woman presents with dull puffiness of the ayes pronounced not pitting periorbital edema this finding is suggestive of this condition? APEA
a) Nephrotic syndrome
b) Myxedema
c) Cushing syndrome
d) Sinusitis
Myxedema is a deposition of mucopolysaccarides in the dermis. Is commonly found if patients with advanced hypothyroidism. The classic skin changes are: swelling of face, lips, eyelids, and tongue or swelling and thickening of skin anywhere on the body, especially in the lower legs.
Myxedema is the hallmark of Grave’s disease, an autoimmune form of hyperthyroidism. Myxedema can also occur in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis a form of hypothyroidism.
6. A 42 years old woman with a past medical history of migraine headaches is requesting prophylactic medication treatment. Which medication should the Nurse practitioner prescribe?
a) Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
b) Amitriptyline (Elavil)
c) Verapamil (verelan)
d) Metoprolol (Lopressor)
Amitriptyline (Elavil) is a tricyclic antidepresant and is considered offlabel use for prophylactic treatment of migrane. Sumatriptan (Imimtrex) Is aTriptans used to abort migraine
7. A pediatric patient has areas of scaling on the scalp with round patches of alopecia. This clinical finding is consistent with:
a) Tinea capitis
b) Seborrheic dermatitis
c) Trichotillomania
d) Alopecia areata
8. What is the appropriate prophylactic medication for an 18 years old woman with a past medical history of migraine headaches?
a) Sumatriptan (Imitrex) b) Propanolol (Inderal)
c) Ibuprofeno (motrin)
d) Dihydroergotamine (DHE)
9. Why would a combined hormonal contraceptive be contraindicated in a 36 year old patient with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, obesity, chronic smoking and sedentary life
a) She is obese
b) She has type 2 diabetes mellitus
c) Her age and tobacco use
d) She leads a sedentary lifestyle
Combined oral contraceptive is contraindicated in women older than 45, breastfeeding, smoking, HTN, diabetes or hx of stroke
10. During the breast examination of a perimenopausal woman the NP detects a bloody spontaneous discharge from the right nipple. This indicates further evaluation.
a) Fibroadenoma
b) Polycystic breast disease Generalized breast pain or tenderness. Green or dark brown nonbloody nipple discharge that tends to leak without pressure or squeezing
c) An intraductal papilloma
d) Pituitary prolactinoma
Intraductal papillomas are usually solitary and smaller than 1 cm. They are located in large lactiferous sinuses or ducts and have a tendency to bleed. Quizlet Nipple Discharge
11. Rh negative women should receive Rho (D) immunoglobulin at what gestational time?
a) 6 weeks
b) 12 weeks
c) 28 weeks
d) 35 weeks
What happens is the client is Rh negative and has a negative antibody screen?
She will need repeat antibody screens and should receive Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) at 28 weeks’ gestation (Quizlet Antepartum Diagnostic Testing Saunders)
30. Papilledema is a cause for concern because it is suggestive of
a) Optic atrophy
b) Microaneurysms
c) Increased intracranial pressure
d) Retinal hemorrhage
Papilledema is the swelling of the optic disc caused by increased intracranial pressure.
31. A 38-year-old patient with a history of abdominal pain presents to the nurse practitioner. Findings reveal superficial edema and bruising in the subcutaneous fatty tissue around the umbilicus. Hemorrhagic pancreatic is suspected because of which finding?
a) A positive Gray Turner’s sign
b) A positive Cullen’s sign
c) Kaposi’s sarcoma
d) Petechiae
32. A 57 years old post-menopausal female presents with a complaint of vaginal burning, pruritus and painful intercourse. On examination, the nurse practitioner would be most concern with the findings
a) A thin, pale, dry vaginal mucosa
b) Absence of rugae
c) A friable cervix
d) Raised yellowish cervical lesion
The term “friable” refers to tissue that is easily irritated, which makes it more prone to inflammation, bleeding, or tearing. Vaginal rugae disappear in those with an estrogen deficiency and those women who are older. Nabothian cysts (also called epithelial cyst ) are common and benign and are considered a normal feature of the adult cervix.. They may be translucent or opaque, whitish to yellow. Atrophic vaginitis is a vaginal disorder that usually happens after menopause appearing as thin, pale and dry.
33. What intervention does the American College of Rheumatology recommend as first line therapy for Osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis or something else
a) Diagnostic workup to rule out rheumatic arthritis
b) NSAID use at lowest effective dose
c) Acetaminophen use up to 4 grams/day
d) Exercise and weight loss
46. An 84-year-old male with prostatic hypertrophy is at increased risk of:
a) Constipation
b) Fecal incontinence
c) Urinary tract infections
d) Prostate cancer
BPH increases the risk of: Acute urinary retention , UTI and Sepsis.
47. A characteristic lesion observed in a male with primary syphilis is a:
A) Group of small scattered vesicles B) Chancre
C) Papule of many shapes
D) Non-tender penile indurated nodule
Primary syphilis typically presents as a solitary, painless chancre, whereas
secondary syphilis can have a wide variety of symptoms, especially fever, lymphadenopathy, rash, and genital or perineal condyloma latum.
48. During an acute attack of gout, the nurse practitioner knows NOT to prescribe
a) Colchicine (Colcrys)
b) Allopurinol (zyloprim)
c) Steroids
d) NSAIDS
Colchicine has two distinct applications in gout. First, it can be used to treat an acute gouty attack. Second, it can help prevent attacks in chronic gout
49. What two vitamins and minerals should be included in oral multivitamins in women
a) Folic Acid and Vitamin C
b) Iron and Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin D and Iron
d) Folic Acid and Iron
50. In a patient with bacterial meningitis, the most common reason for finding of headaches:
a) Meningeal erythema
b) Increased intracranial pressure
c) Meningeal irritation
d) Swelling of the spinal cord
51. Janeway lesions, petechiae and Oster nodes are associated with:
a) Gonococcemia
b) Infective endocarditis
c) Hyperthyroidism
d) Peripheral vascular disease
52. A patient present with decreased hearing related to antibiotic use. Which class of antibiotics is this?
a) Aminoglycosides
b) Beta-lactams
c) Cephalosporins
d) Macrolides
Aminoglycosides antibiotics, vancomycin and aspirin are some medication that can cause hearing loss.
53. Which antihypertensive would be appropriate to prescribe for a hypertensive patient (B/P 150/95) that is in her third trimester?
a) Candesartan
b) Lisinopril
c) Methyldopa
d) Furosemide
Oral methyldopa has been assigned to pregnancy category B. Methyldopa is a drug of first choice for control of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy and is the most widely prescribed antihypertensive
54. A 40-year-old admits to multiple sex partners presents with several lesions over his body. Finding reveals hemorrhagic vesiculopustular lesions over the hands and feet. These lesions are most likely associated with:
a) Gonococcemia
b) Infective endocarditis
c) Hyperthyroidism
d) Peripheral vascular disease
75. When palpating the prostate gland during the rectal exam, the prostate feels tender, swollen, boggy and warm. This finding is consistent with:
a) A normal prostate gland
b) Acute bacterial prostatitis
c) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
d) Carcinoma of the prostate.
A boggy prostate describes a gland that is edematous and tender such as in patients with bacterial prostatitis.
88. Headaches with symptoms of nausea and vomiting may be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) Migraine headache
b) Brain tumors
c) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
d) Tension headache
89. Which of the following finding could indicate a need for further evaluation of the cardiac patient?
a) Hematocrit 42%
b) Potassium 4.2 mg/dl
c) Sodium 140 mEq/dl
d) Low density lipoprotein of 190 mg/dl
90. Alpha-adrenergic blocker increases urine outflow in males by:
a) Improving detrusor muscle stability
b) Shrinking the prostate gland
c) Relaxing prostate smooth muscle
d) Dilating the urethral vasculature
91. The scoliosis patient who would cause the greatest concern for the nurse practitioner is a:
a) 13 y/o female with a 100 curve
b) 17 y/o female with a 100 curve
c) 12 y/o female with a 50 curve
d) 18 y/o female with a 50 curve
92. Which finding bellow would be unusual in a patient with diabetic retinopathy?
a) Papilledema
b) Dot and blot hemorrhages
c) Microaneurysms
d) Cotton wool spots
93. Where should the uterine fundus be palpable at 12 weeks?
a) At the level of the umbilicus
b) At the level of the symphysis pubis
c) Midway between the symphysis and umbilicus
d) Bellow the symphysis pubis
94. Ophthalmoscopic examination of a 40 years old carpenter reveals a triangular thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva across the outer surface of the cornea. This condition is termed:
a) Corneal arcus
b) Corneal scar
c) Pterygium
d) Cataract
A pterygium is a growth of the conjunctiva (triangular thickening) that covers the cornea.
95. A patient calls the nurse practitioner, and states that he missed his morning daily dose of warfarin, 5 mg yesterday and today. The nurse practitioner instructs the patient to:
a) Wait until tomorrow and resume daily dosing of warfarin 5 mg.
b) Take warfarin 10 mg now
c) Take warfarin 5 mg now, warfarin 5 mg at 5 pm, today and resume the daily warfarin 5 mg dose in the morning as schedule
d) take warfarin 5 mg now and resume the warfarin 5 mg daily dose in the morning as schedule.
96. What common clinical finding is present in a patient who has croup?
a) Barking cough
b) Sudden onset of symptoms
c) Nighttime symptoms
d) Shortness of breath
97. A type of breast cancer that begins with erythema and swelling of the breast and progresses rapidly is termed:
a) Paget’s disease
b) Invasive ductal carcinoma
c) Inflammatory breast cancer
d) Invasive locular carcinoma
98. Salmeterol (sereventR) in combination with an inhaled steroid is prescribed for a patient with moderate persistent asthma. What is the most important teaching point about salmeterol?
a) It is not effective during an acute asthma attack
b) It may take 2 to 3 weeks to begin working
c) The drug works within 10 minutes
d) The drug may be used bay patients 6 years older.
99. A 50 years old male has a non-tender, enlarged scrotum. The nurse practitioner suspects which of the following conditions:
a) Orchitis
b) Epididymitis
c) Hydrocele
d) Prostatitis
Hydrocele is produced by fluid in the sac which normally surrounds the testicle. It often presents as painless swelling in the scrotum
100. Risk factors associated with breast cancer include all of the following except:
a) Personal family history of breast cancer
b) Use of hormone replacement therapy
c) Post-menopausal obesity
d) Low socioeconomic status.
101. A patient who has a sulfa allergy can safely take:
a) A sumatriptan (Imitrex)
b) Celecoxib (Celebrex) c) Glimepiride (amaryl)
d) Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
102. Which group of lymph nodes are locating on the medial surface of the arm approximately 3 cm above the elbow?
a) Lateral axillary nodes
b) Infraclavicular nodes
c) Epitrochlear nodes
d) Submental nodes
The epitrochlear lymph nodes, also known as the cubital or supraepitrochlear lymph nodes, are part of the superficial lymphatic system of the upper limb. The epitrochlear nodes are in the subcutaneous connective tissue on the medial aspect of the elbow, about 4–5 cm above the humeral epitrochlea.
103. An elderly patient has been diagnosed with a cataract. What structure in the eye has become diseased?
a) Retina
b) Cornea
c) Lens
d) Optic nerve
A cataract is a clouding of the lens in the eye that affects vision. Most cataracts are related to aging.
104. A patient presents with pain in the shoulder. The nurse practitioner knows that there are four rotator cuff muscles. The muscle that initiates abduction movement at the shoulder is known as the:
a) Supraspinatus
b) Infraspinatus
c) Levator scapulae muscle
d) Subscapularis
Muscles: supraspinatus (initiates abduction – first 15 degrees), deltoid (up to 90 degrees), trapezius and serratus anterior (scapular rotation, for abduction beyond 90 degrees). The deltoid muscle abducts the arm, but at 90 degrees the humerus bumps into the acromion.
105. A patient with bulimia is likely to be:
a) Very overweight
b) Very underweight
c) Of average weight
d) Not concerned with weigh
106. Chronic bloody diarrhea could be suggestive of:
a) Irritable bowel syndrome
b) Crohn’s disease
c) Hepatitis A
d) Celiac disease
107. On examination a patient is noted to have a “mask-like” face with decreased blinking and a characteristic stare. These features may be characteristic of:
a) Nephrotic syndrome
b) Myxedema
c) Cushing’s syndrome
d) Parkinson disease
108. An appropriate initial treatment for benign positional vertigo is: (APEA)
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Meclizine (Antivert)
c) pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)
d) promethazine (Phenergan)
109. Conductive and sensorineural phases are necessary for hearing to take place. The sensorineural phase of hearing pathways involves the:
a) cochlea and the cochlear nerve
b) external ear canal and the middle ear
c) ossicles and the inner ear
d) transfer of sounds from the external environment into de external auditory canal.
Involve the cochlea and the cochlear nerve
110. A 65 years old has a history of one kidney with early renal insufficiency. He is diagnosed with pneumonia and will require:
a) Shorter course of antibiotics
b) Longer course of antibiotics
c) Lower dose of antibiotics
d) A higher dose of antibiotic
111. A 44 years old male presents to the nurse practitioner for an employment physical and is concerned about testing positive for amphetamines on a drug screen, even though he is not taking amphetamines. His current medication list includes metformin, lisinopril, glyburide and bupropion. The most likely medication cause for a false positive result for amphetamines would be:
a) Metformin
b) Lisinopril
c) Glyburide
d) Bupropion
Bupropion is a commonly prescribed, monocyclic antidepressant often used as an aid for smoking cessation. Several case reports have described false positive amphetamine urine drug screens (UDS) associated with bupropion
112. Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) nasal spray has been found to be useful in the management of enuresis in children. In which of the following situations is the drug especially beneficial?
a) Daytime incontinence
b) Hypertensive children with enuresis
c) Secondary enuresis
d) Sleepovers
DDAVP Nasal Spray is indicated for the management of primary nocturnal enuresis. It may be used alone or adjunctive to behavioral conditioning or other nonpharmacological intervention
115) Rapid Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing would be appropriate for a patient with complains of
a) painful bower movement, anal itching, and painful or swollen testicles or abnormal menstrual bleeding.
b) Painful urination, dyspareunia, and vaginal or penile discharge
c) Fever, headache, and lymphadenopathy
Indicative for patients presenting symptoms of acute HIV infection such as rash, fever, headache, sore throat.
116) which of the following condition is NOT associated with the symptoms of hemoptysis?
a) Pulmonary emboli
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Viral pneumonia
d) Neoplasm of the lung
117) which condition is associated with end-stage renal disease in pediatric patients and requires recombinant erythropoietin treatment?
a) Osteodystrophy
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypertension
d) Anemia
118) when evaluating a 17 y/o girl with infrequent menstrual periods, which findings suggest probable hyperandronism?
a) High pitch voice
b) Hirsutism
c) Polycystic ovaries
d) Obesity
119) which form of urinary incontinence is present in a patient with Alzheimer’s disease who is unable to reach the toilet in time? (APEA)
a) Functional incontinence
b) Overflow incontinence
c) Urge incontinence
d) Stress incontinence
Possible causes of functional incontinence include: poor vision, psychological issues, environmental barriers to using the restroom, cognitive issues, including forms of dementia, delirium, and intellectual disabilities, neurological or muscular limitations, such as arthritis
120) a 27y/o male patient presents with a painless chancre on the shaft of his penis and regional lymphadenopathy. He is diagnosed with primary syphilis. The best initial treatment is:
a) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
b) Clindamycin (cleocin)
c) Metronidazole (flagyl)
d) Benzathine penicillin G (Bicillin L.A)
121) An 80 y/o man is being evaluated for recent episodes of incontinence and confusion. His family states that he is usually independent with no altered mental issues, but has become forgetful within the last 2 weeks. Which medication is most likely associated with there symptoms ?
a) Cimetidine (tagamet)
b) Warfarin (coumadin)
c) Ramipril (altace)
d) Vitamin b12
122) When ordering an oral diabetes medication for a 72 y/o patient with a recent hx of decreased appetite and ongoing risk of hypoglycemia. The NP should Rx.
a) Tolbutamide (orinase)
b) Glipizide (Glucotol XL)
c) Metformin (Gucophage)
d) Chlorpopamide (diabinese)
123) to increases urine outflow in men with BPH, the NP should prescribe
a) An alpha blocker
b) An alpha agonist
c) A calcium channel blocker
d) A diuretic
124) A 64 y/o man c/o leg pain and occasional numbness that worsens with ambulation and improves with lumbar flexion. The symptoms are consistent with:
a) Ankylosing spondylitis
b) Spinal stenosis
c) Bursitis
d) Cauda equina syndrome
Spinal stenosis or pseudoclaudication refer to pain in the back or legs when the patient walks but improves with rest, lumbar flexion or both.
125) which is a true statement about varicose veins?
a) They are due to congenital valve deformities
b) They are usually dx on clinical presentation
c) They are not affected by pregnancy
d) They are more symptomatic during ovulation
Varicose veins are most often diagnosed with a physical exam, including examining your legs while you are standing. A weakened valve allows backflow of blood to the previous valve in a vein
126) a 17 y/o is dx. With mild bronchospasm. Which of the following would provide relief?
a) Inhaled mometasone ( Asmanex)
b) Inhaled levalbuterol (Xopenex)
c) Oral mentelukast (Singulair)
d) Oral dextromethorphan/guaifenesin product
127) a common cause of decrease libido in men is due to?
a) Decrease blood flow in the hypogastric arterial system
b) Endocrine dysfunction
c) Neurologic deficit
d) Impaired neural innervation
128) what should be included in the initial tx of bacterial epididymitis in a sexually active 22 y/0 male?
a) Doxycycline and ceftriaxone
b) Ceftriaxone and metronidazole
c) Ciprofloxacin and fluconazole
d) Levofloxacin and cephalexin
In young men the usual cause is a sexually transmitted microorganism
129) which assessment findings are NOT associated with pyloric stenosis in a 2 month old infant?
a) Projectile vomiting
b) Severe dehydration as demonstrated by sunken eyeballs and depressed anterior fontanelle
c) A bloated and tense tympanic abdomen
d) A palpable mass the size and shape of an olive, located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen
130) hyperkalemia is associated with
a) Increase BP
b) Alpha-blockers
c) Diminished renal function
d) Loop diuretics
chronic renal failure, hypoaldosteronism, and massive tissue breakdown as in rhabdomyolysis, are typical conditions leading to hyperkalemia.
131) the assessment of a 72 y/o male causes the NP to have concerns that the pt. is a suicide risk.
Risk factors for suicide in the elderly do NOT include
a) Chronic pain
b) Comorbid physical illness
c) Family hx of suicide
d) Retirement
132) A pregnant pt presents for a routine 16 week prenatal visit. Her BP has decreased from 119/78 mm/Hg at her 12 week visit to 110/69 mmHg. What hemodynamic for the decrease BP?
a) Decrease preload
b) Decrease in stroke volume
c) Decrease cardiac output
d) Decrease in systemic vascular resistance
The increase cardiac output and slight decrease in DP during pregnancy is associated with a marked reduction in systemic vascular resistance
133) the most common treatment for Helicobacter pylori is a triple therapy, interpreted as:
a) 2 antibiotics and proton pump inhibitor for 7-14 days
b) 3 different antibiotics for 7-20 days
c) 3 rounds of the same antibiotic over 3 weeks
d) 2 proton pump inhibitors and 1 antibiotic for 7-14 days
134) Patients with psoriasis frequently have
a) Pruritus, positive auspitz sign, and pitted nails
b) Pruritus, pitted nails and satellite lesions
c) Pitted nails and plaques
d) Dermatomal rash and satellite lesions
135) which condition is best treated using alpha adrenergic antagonist?
a) Functional incontinence
b) Renal insufficiency
c) Urge incontinence
d) Overflow incontinence
136) a patient who is taking an oral glococorticosteroid should be advice to
a) Crush it in applesauce
b) Chew it prior to a high fat meal
c) Take it on an empty stomach
d) Take it with food
Corticosteroids are recommended to take with food to prevent stomach upset
137) which of the following drug classes is not indicated for the treatment of depression?
a) Buspirone (Buspar)
b) Selective Serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
c) Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)
d) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
Buspirone is an anti-anxiety medicine
138) A Hispanic woman who is 26 weeks pregnant states that she recently began eating ice chips between meals.
a) Have the patient checked for diabetes
b) Asses the patient for iron deficiency anemia
c) Encourage the patient to eat more at meal times
d) Tell the patient that this cultural practice can be harmful
139) Snellen chart evaluation indicated that the patient vision is 20/30. What is the proper description of this result?
a) At 20 feet, this patient can see what a person with normal vision can see at 30 feet
b) At 30 feet, this patient can see what a person with normal vision can see at 20 feet
c) At 20 feet, this patient can see what few people can see at 30 feet
d) This patient has sight abilities that are worse than a patient with 20/40 vision
140) which of the following is NOT a common symptom of Vit b12 deficiency
a) Sore tongue
b) Fatigue
c) Constipation
d) Vomiting
141) during a migraine, the cerebral arteries
a) Constrict
b) Dilate
c) Pulsate
d) vibrate
142) which is the appropriate medication for a 31 y/o pregnant diagnosed with UTI
a) Cefuroxime (Zinafed) or nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)
b) Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) or Ciprofloxacin (cipro)
c) Ciprofloxacin (cipro) or tetracycline (Sumycin)
d) tetracycline (Sumycin) or amoxicillin (Amoxil)
The safest choices are amoxicillin (moxatag), cefuroxime (Zinafed), cephalexin (Keflex) and Nicrofurantoin (Microbid)
143) which of the following medication is not indicated for the treatment of muscle spasms?
a) Baclofen (lioresal)
b) Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
c) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
d) Carisoprodol (Soma)
Antispastics are used to treat muscle spasticity. They should NOT be use to treat muscle spasms. Baclofen is used to relieve spasticity caused by MS.
144) during an abdominal examination the NP percusses the bulging area of the abdomen. Which sounds suggest the presence
a) Tympanic
b) Dullness
c) Hyperresonant sounds
d) Normal resonance
145) which pathogen is associated with common urinary tract infections?
a) e.coli
b) klebsiella
c) streptococcus
d) proteus mirabilis
146) which condition is caused by an insufficient production of intrinsic factor by gastric mucosa and vitamin B insufficiency?
a) Diarrhea
b) Pernicious anemia
c) Osteoporosis
d) Muscle weakness
147) A multiparous pregnant patient presents at 24 weeks gestation with complain of painless vaginal bleeding. This presentation is consistent with:
a) Placenta accreta
b) Placenta previa
c) Placenta percreta
d) Placental abruption
Placenta accreta poses a major risk of severe vaginal bleeding (hemorrhage) after delivery. Placenta previa vary, but the most common symptom is painless bleeding during the third trimester.
148) when measuring the fundal high of a pregnant female at 32 weeks gestation, which measurement would the NP suspect fetal growth
a) 29 cm
b) 30cm
c) 31cm
d) 32 cm
Fundal height is generally defined as the distance from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus measured in centimeters. After 20 weeks of pregnancy, your fundal height measurement often matches the number of weeks you’ve been pregnant.
149) A 40 y/o female, the overall texture of the breast is soft, with an uneven contour bilaterally. The NP informs the patient that:
a) Warrants a mammogram
b) Is considered normal
c) May be suggestive of fibroadenoma
d) May indicate cystic breast
150) A 74 y/o man who recently lost his spouse of 50 years in an auto accident tells the NP that “ he has no purpose in this life”
a. Have you told your family how you feel?
b. Have you thought about hurting yourself?
c. Are you taking your medication?
d. Do you have any friends?
151) A 67 y/o woman with Hx of A-fib and an ejection fraction of 48% has had normal digoxin levels. Which can cause a decrease of digoxin level?
a. Decrease creatinine clearance
b. Weight loss
c. Increase exercise
d. Regular use of antaci
156) Recommended combination therapy for uncomplicated anorectal and pharyngeal gonorrhea is?
a) Ceftriaxone and benzathine penicillin
b) benzathine penicillin and doxycycline
c) Doxycycline and ciprofloxacin
d) Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
157) An example of synovial joints would be
a) Vertebrate bodies of the spine
b) Scalp
c) Shoulder
d) Pubic symphysis of the pelvis
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