During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

Question 1During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

 

Bronchial edema caused by the chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis

 

Bronchial edema caused by binding of the cytotropic antibody

 

Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors

 

Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H2 receptors

 

Question 2Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of what?

 

Strong response from IgM

 

Level of protection provided by IgG

 

Memory cells for IgE

 

Rapid response from IgA

 

Question 3In the later stages of an inflammatory response, which phagocytic cell is predominant?

 

Neutrophils

 

Monocytes

 

Chemokines

 

Eosinophils

 

Question 4The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?

 

IgE

 

IgG

 

IgM

 

T cells

 

Question 5What is the inflammatory effect of nitric oxide (NO)?

 

Increases capillary permeability, and causes pain

 

Increases neutrophil chemotaxis and platelet aggregation

 

Causes smooth muscle contraction and fever

 

Decreases mast cell function, and decreases platelet aggregation

 

Question 6Where are antibodies produced?

 

Helper T lymphocytes

 

Thymus gland

 

Plasma cells

 

Bone marrow

 

Question 7A patient is admitted to the hospital with multiple myeloma (MM). Which diagnostic test should the healthcare professional assess as the priority?

 

Serum potassium level

 

Serum calcium level

 

Bone scan or limb x-rays

 

Bone marrow biopsy

 

Question 8Frequently when H1 and H2 receptors are located on the same cells, they act in what fashion?

 

Synergistically

 

Additively

 

Antagonistically

 

Agonistically

 

 

 

NRP511 Advanced Pathophysiology

 

Week 2 Quiz

 

Question 1A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s laboratory results and sees that the patient has a low reticulocyte count and a high iron level. Which type of anemia does the professional associate these findings with?

 

Folate deficiency anemia

 

Iron deficiency anemia

 

Hemolyticanemia

 

Anemia of chronic disease

 

Question 2Most protein hormones are transported in the bloodstream and are what?

 

Bound to a lipid-soluble carrier

 

Free in an unbound, water-soluble form

 

Bound to a water soluble-binding protein

 

Free because of their lipid-soluble chemistry

 

Question 3The effects of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion include which solute?

 

Sodium and water retention

 

Sodium retention and water loss

 

Sodium dilution and water retention

 

Sodium dilution and water loss

 

Question 4What is diabetes insipidus a result of?

 

Antidiuretic hormone hyposecretion

 

Antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion

 

Insulin hyposecretion

 

Insulin hypersecretion

 

That’s not correct

 

Question 5A patient has pernicious anemia and asks the healthcare professional to explain the disease. Which statement by the professional is most accurate?

 

The lack of certain foods in your diet

 

Your body cannot absorb vitamin B12.

 

You are not getting enough vitamin C.

 

Your bone marrow has stopped working.

 

Question 6Without prior exposure to an antigen, which cells are able to destroy some types of tumor cells and some virus-infected cells?

 

Lymphocytes

 

Plasma cells

 

Megakaryocytes

 

Natural killer (NK) cells

 

Question 7Which of these is the role of nitric oxide (NO) in hemostasis?

 

Stimulates the release of fibrinogen to maintain the platelet plug.

 

Stimulates the release of clotting factors V and VII.

 

Causes vasoconstriction and stimulates platelet aggregation.

 

Controls platelet activation through in concert with prostacyclin.

 

Question 8Which of these is a lipid-soluble hormone?

 

Cortisol

 

Oxytocin

 

Epinephrine

 

Growth hormone

 

 

 

NRP511 Advanced Pathophysiology

 

Week 3 Quiz

 

Question 1What is the most important negative inotropic agent?

 

Norepinephrine

 

Epinephrine

 

Acetylcholine

 

Dopamine

 

Question 2Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?

 

Inflammation and roughening of the endothelium of the artery are present.

 

Hypertrophy and vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery are present.

 

Excessive clot formation and lipid accumulation in the endothelium of the artery are present.

 

Evidence of age-related changes that weaken the endothelium of the artery is present.

 

Question 3

 

An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?

 

Atrial septal defect (ASD)

 

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

 

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

 

Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect

 

Question 4Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?

 

Homocysteine

 

Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

 

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

 

C-reactive protein (CRP)

 

Question 5What is the major determinant of the resistance that blood encounters as it flows through the systemic circulation?

 

Volume of blood in the systemic circulation

 

Muscle layer of the metarterioles

 

Muscle layer of the arterioles

 

Force of ventricular contraction

 

Question 6What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm?

 

Atherosclerosis causes ischemia of the intima.

 

It increases nitric oxide.

 

Atherosclerosis erodes the vessel wall.

 

It obstructs the vessel.

 

Question 7What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis?

 

Release of the inflammatory cytokines

 

Macrophages adhere to vessel walls.

 

Injury to the endothelial cells that line the artery walls

 

Release of the platelet-deprived growth factor

 

Question 8In systolic heart failure, what effect does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) have on stroke volume?

 

Increases preload and decreases afterload

 

Increases preload and increases afterload

 

Decreases preload and increases afterload

 

Decreases preload and decreases afterload

 

 

 

NRP511 Advanced Pathophysiology

 

Week 5 Quiz

 

Question 1A patient is having a spirometry measurement done and asks the healthcare professional to explain this test. What response by the professional is best?

 

To evaluate the cause of hypoxia

 

To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration

 

To measure the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane

 

To determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations

 

Question 2A 7 year-old-child presents to the clinic where parents report signs and symptoms consistent with asthma. What does the healthcare professional do in order to confirm this diagnosis?

 

Assess for a parental history of asthma

 

Draw serum levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) and eosinophil levels

 

Measure expiratory flow rate with spirometry testing

 

Give a trial of asthma medication and check for improvement

 

Question 3Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants?

 

Infants are obligatory nose breathers.

 

Their nares are small in diameter.

 

Infants become dehydrated when mouth breathing.

 

Their epiglottis is proportionally greater than the epiglottis of an adult’s.

 

Question 4The core defects of asthma include: (choose the best response)

 

inflammation/alveolar destruction/bronchoconstriction

 

mucous production/alveolar destruction/bronchoconstriction

 

inflammation/mucous production/bronchoconstriction

 

obstruction/mucous production/bronchoconstriction

 

Question 5What does the student learn about ventilation?

 

Hypoventilation causes hypocapnia.

 

Hypoventilation causes alkalosis.

 

Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia.

 

Hyperventilation causes acidosis.

 

Question 6Fluid in the pleural space characterizes which condition?

 

Pleural effusion

 

Atelectasis

 

Bronchiectasis

 

Ischemia

 

Question 7Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most often caused by what type of infection?

 

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

 

Influenza virus

 

Adenoviruses

 

Rhinovirus

 

Question 8Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis?

 

Obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation

 

Respiratory disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging

 

Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens

 

Pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency

 

 

 

NRP511 Advanced Pathophysiology

 

Week 6 Quiz

 

Question 1ADD/ADHD involves which of the following neurotransmitters in its pathophysiology? (choose the best answer)

 

serotonin

 

acetylcholine

 

dopamine and norepinephrine

 

norepinephrine and serotonin

 

Question 2Clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease are caused by a deficit in which of the brain’s neurotransmitters?

 

Gamma-aminobutyric acid

 

Dopamine

 

Norepinephrine

 

Acetylcholine

 

Question 3Which of the meninges closely adheres to the surface of the brain and spinal cord and follows the sulci and fissures?

 

Dura mater

 

Arachnoid

 

Pia mater

 

Inner dura

 

Question 4Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system abnormalities exist in a large percentage of individuals with what?

 

Schizophrenia

 

Major depression

 

Mania

 

Panic disorder

 

Question 5Where is the neurotransmitter, norepinephrine, secreted?

 

Somatic nervous system

 

Parasympathetic preganglion

 

Sympathetic postganglion

 

Parasympathetic postganglion

 

Question 6Which of the following gliomas is considered the highest grade and thus most serious?

 

Pilocytic astrocytoma

 

Astrocytoma multiforme

 

Anaplastic oligodendroglioma

 

Anaplastic Schwannoma

 

That’s not correct

 

Question 7Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barré syndrome are similar in that they both do what?

 

Result from demyelination by an immune reaction.

 

Cause permanent destruction of peripheral nerves.

 

Result from inadequate production of neurotransmitters.

 

Block acetylcholine receptor sites at the myoneuronal junction.

 

Question 8What is a common location to find a Schwannoma in the body?

 

in White Matter

 

on Cranial Nerve VIII

 

on the Optic Nerve

 

rising from the meninges along the spinal cord

 

 

 

NRP511 Advanced Pathophysiology

 

Week 7 Quiz

 

Question 1You see a patient with complaints of midline axial neck pain and headaches for 3 months. The pain does not travel into the upper extremities and there are no signs of sensory/motor dysfunction. Which of the following is the most likely core defect?

 

Fibromyalgia

 

Cervical spondylosis

 

Muscle spasm

 

Neuroforaminal stenosis with impingement of exiting cervical nerve roots

 

Question 2A patient in the clinic is worried about having fibromyalgia. You would begin your diagnosis by exclusion by assessing for all of the following EXCEPT:

 

Rheumatism

 

low-grade systemic inflammation

 

Thyroid disease

 

Osteoarthritis

 

That’s not correct

 

Question 3Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscle fibers to the basement membrane?

 

Syntrophin

 

Laminin

 

Dystrophin

 

Troponin

 

Question 4What is the most common malignant bone tumor diagnosed during childhood?

 

Chondrosarcoma

 

Fibrosarcoma

 

Ewing Sarcoma

 

Osteosarcoma

 

Question 5What is a primary defect in osteoarthritis?

 

Stromelysin and acid metalloproteinase breakdown articular cartilage.

 

Immunoglobulin G (IgG) destroys the synovial membrane.

 

Synovial membranes become inflamed.

 

Cartilage-coated osteophytes create bone spurs.

 

Question 6Which of the following is most consistent with suspicion for rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?

 

Bilateral large and small joint involvement, pain worse upon wake and with activity

 

Unilateral or Bilateral large joint involvement, pain worse upon wake and at bedtime

 

Unilateral or Bilateral small joint involvement, pain worse at bedtime and with activity

 

Diffuse body wide pain in multiple joints, worse with physical activity

 

Question 7What does a Ewing sarcoma arise from?

 

Bone marrow

 

Bone-producing mesenchymal cells

 

Metadiaphysis of long bones

 

Embryonal osteocytes

 

Question 8Which bone cells are large and multinucleated and contain lysosomes filled with hydrolytic enzymes?

 

Osteoblasts

 

Osteoclasts

 

Osteocytes

 

Fibrocytes

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