A 65-year-old female presents to your clinic for follow up on her blood pressure that she has been monitoring.
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Get it written →A 65-year-old female presents to your clinic for follow up on her blood pressure that she has been monitoring. Over the last two months on several different occasions her blood pressure has been 152-158/92-96 mm Hg. Her ECG is normal, she has no proteinuria, and her creatinine is normal. Her physical exam is also normal. What option represents the best intervention? Question 36 options: 1) Initiate therapy with metoprolol 2) Initiate therapy with methyldopa 3) Continue monitor BP, and start drug therapy if evidence of target organ damage 4) Initiate therapy with chlorthalidone
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