A 58-year-old woman presents to your office with complaints of headache, a temperature of 101.1°F, anorexia,
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Get it written →A 58-year-old woman presents to your office with complaints of headache, a temperature of 101.1°F, anorexia, and morning stiffness in her hips and shoulders. She indicates that this morning her vision was blurry, whereas yesterday it was normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? Administration of 60 mg of prednisone and referral to ophthalmology Administration of 800 mg of ibuprofen and referral to neurology Administration of 800 mg of ibuprofen and referral to rheumatology Supportive care only
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