A patient in the 26th week of pregnancy had a one-hour glucose screening test.
A patient in the 26th week of pregnancy had a one-hour glucose screening test. Results of this test showed a blood sugar level of 160 mg/dl. Subsequently, the patient presents to the outpatient laboratory department with a physician’s order for a three-hour glucose tolerance test. The reason for the test as documented on order is: abnormal glucose on screening, rule out gestational diabetes. What is the correct ICD-10-CM and CPT code set for this outpatient ancillary services encounter?
a. R73.09, Z33.1, 82951
b. O99.810, Z3A26, 82951
c. O99.810, Z3A.26, 82951
d. 024.419, 82951, 82952
5.90) This patient has a history of infertility and has been seeing her OB/GYN physician for more than two years. It was elected to perform a hysterosalpingogram at the outpatient surgery center to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes.
Procedure Report
The patient was prepped and draped in the usual manner. The cervical os was cannulated, and Sinografin was injected in a retrograde fashion under fluoroscopic control. The body of the uterus appears normal. No filling defects are seen. There is no evidence of synechiae. The right fallopian tube is occluded approximately 1cm from the body of the uterus. The left fallopian tube is patient and demonstrates a free spill of contrast into the peritoneal cavity.
Assign the codes for this encounter?
ICD-10-CM and CPT codes:
5.91) This 23-year-old female is expecting her first child. She comes into the radiology department for an outpatient antenatal ultrasound to confirm the gestational age of the fetus and rule out fetal growth retardation. A real-time image was taken of the fetus estimated to be at least 16 weeks. What diagnosis codes and associated procedure codes(even though they may be chargemaster-assigned codes) are assigned?
ICD-10-CM and CPT codes:
5.92) This 26-year-old gravida 1, para 0 female has been having spotting and has been on bed rest. She awoke this morning with severe cramping and bleeding. Her husband brought her to the hospital. After examination, it was determined that she has had an incomplete early spontaneous abortion. She is in the 10th week of her pregnancy. She was taken to outpatient surgery, and a dilation and curettage were performed. There were no complications from the procedure. She is discharged home with instructions to follow up with the office. Which of the following is the correct ICD-10-CM and CPT code set?
a. O02.1, 58120
b. O03.4, Z3A.10, 59812
c. O03.4, Z3A.10, 58120
d. O03.9, 59812
6.93) This 29-year-old female has had two spontaneous abortions because of an incompetent cervix. Because of this, she had a cervical cerclage placed in the third month of this pregnancy. She is coming in now to have the cerclage removed under general anesthesia. She was taken to surgery, and the cerclage was removed without complication. She was discharged that evening. There are no signs of labor. and the membranes are intact. She was instructed on the signs of labor and will see me in the office in two days. Gestational age is 38 weeks, and labor is expected to begin at any time. What are the correct ICD-10-CM and CPT code assignments for this case?
a. O34.33, Z3A.38, 59871
b. 034.33, Z3A.38(The cerclage removal is part of the global package)
c.N88.3, with appropriate E/M procedure
d. N88.3, 59871
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