Which classification of drugs is contraindicated for the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

Which classification of drugs is contraindicated for the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

 

A. Positive inotropes

 

B. Vasodilators

 

C. Diuretics

 

D. Antidysrhythmics

 

 

 

QUESTION 2 Signs and symptoms of an allergy attack include which of the following?

 

A. Wheezing on inspiration

 

B. Increased respiratory rate

 

C. Circumoral cyanosis

 

D. Prolonged expiration

 

 

 

QUESTION 3 A client confides to the nurse that he tasted poison in his evening meal. This would be an example of what type of hallucination?

 

A. Auditory

 

B. Gustatory

 

C. Olfactory

 

D. Visceral

 

 

 

QUESTION 4 Which of the following findings would be abnormal in a postpartal woman?

 

A. Chills shortly after delivery

 

B. Pulse rate of 60 bpm in morning on first postdelivery day

 

C. Urinary output of 3000 mL on the second day after delivery

 

D. An oral temperature of 101F (38.3C) on the third day after delivery

 

 

 

QUESTION 5 A six-month-old infant has been admitted to the emergency room with febrile seizures. In the teaching of the parents, the nurse states that:

 

A. Sustained temperature elevation over 103F is generally related to febrile seizures

 

B. Febrile seizures do not usually recur

 

C. There is little risk of neurological deficit and mental retardation as sequelae to febrile seizures

 

D. Febrile seizures are associated with diseases of the central nervous system

 

 

 

QUESTION 6 A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder continues to be hyperactive and to lose weight. Which of the following nutritional interventions would be most therapeutic for him at this time?

 

A. Small, frequent feedings of foods that can be carried

 

B. Tube feedings with nutritional supplements

 

C. Allowing him to eat when and what he wants

 

D. Giving him a quiet place where he can sit down to eat meals

 

 

 

QUESTION 7 A client with bipolar disorder taking lithium tells the nurse that he has ringing in his ears, blurred vision, and diarrhe

 

A. The nurse notices a slight tremor in his left hand and a slurring pattern to his speech. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?

 

A. Administer a stat dose of lithium as necessary.

 

B. Recognize this as an expected response to lithium.

 

C. Request an order for a stat blood lithium level.

 

D. Give an oral dose of lithium antidote.

 

 

 

QUESTION 8 A diagnosis of hepatitis C is confirmed by a male client’s physician. The nurse should be knowledgeable of the differences between hepatitis A, B, and C. Which of the following are characteristics of hepatitis C?

 

A. The potential for chronic liver disease is minimal.

 

B. The onset of symptoms is abrupt.

 

C. The incubation period is 2–26 weeks.

 

D. There is an effective vaccine for hepatitis B, but not for hepatitis C.

 

 

 

QUESTION 9 Hypoxia is the primary problem related to near-drowning victims. The first organ that sustains irreversible damage after submersion in water is the:

 

A. Kidney (urinary system)

 

B. Brain (nervous system)

 

C. Heart (circulatory system)

 

D. Lungs (respiratory system)

 

 

 

QUESTION 10 Which of the following activities would be most appropriate during occupational therapy for a client with bipolar disorder?

 

A. Playing cards with other clients

 

B. Working crossword puzzles

 

C. Playing tennis with a staff member

 

D. Sewing beads on a leather belt

 

 

 

QUESTION 11 A 30-year-old male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder. For the last 2 months, his family describes him as being “on the move,” sleeping

 

3–4 hours nightly, spending lots of money, and losing approximately 10 lb. During the initial assessment with the client, the nurse would expect him to exhibit which of the following?

 

A. Short, polite responses to interview questions

 

B. Introspection related to his present situation

 

C. Exaggerated self-importance

 

D. Feelings of helplessness and hopelessness

 

 

 

QUESTION 12 Diabetes during pregnancy requires tight metabolic control of glucose levels to prevent perinatal mortality. When evaluating the pregnant client, the nurse knows the recommended serum glucose range during pregnancy is:

 

A. 70 mg/dL and 120 mg/dL

 

B. 100 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL

 

C. 40 mg/dL and 130 mg/dL

 

D. 90 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL

 

 

 

QUESTION 13 When evaluating a client with symptoms of shock, it is important for the nurse to differentiate between neurogenic and hypovolemic shock. The symptoms of neurogenic shock differ from hypovolemic shock in that:

 

A. In neurogenic shock, the skin is warm and dry

 

B. In hypovolemic shock, there is a bradycardia

 

C. In hypovolemic shock, capillary refill is less than 2 seconds

 

D. In neurogenic shock, there is delayed capillary refill

 

 

 

QUESTION 14 A 55-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with complaints of fatigue, jaundice, anorexia, and clay-colored stools. His admitting diagnosis is “rule out hepatitis.” Laboratory studies reveal elevated liver enzymes and bilirubin. In obtaining his health history, the nurse should assess his potential for exposure to hepatitis.

 

Which of the following represents a high-risk group for contracting this disease?

 

A. Heterosexual males

 

B. Oncology nurses

 

C. American Indians

 

D. Jehovah’s Witnesses

 

 

 

QUESTION 15 A schizophrenic client has made sexual overtures toward her physician on numerous occasions. During lunch, the client tells the nurse, “My doctor is in love with me and wants to marry me.” This client is using which of the following defense mechanisms?

 

A. Displacement

 

B. Projection

 

C. Reaction formation

 

D. Suppression

 

 

 

QUESTION 16 When teaching a sex education class, the nurse identifies the most common STDs in the United States as:

 

A. Chlamydia

 

B. Herpes genitalis

 

C. Syphilis

 

D. Gonorrhea

 

 

 

QUESTION 17 The nurse assists a client with advanced emphysema to the bathroom. The client becomes extremely short of breath while returning to bed. The nurse should:

 

A. Increase his nasal O2 to 6 L/min

 

B. Place him in a lateral Sims’ position

 

C. Encourage pursed-lip breathing

 

D. Have him breathe into a paper bag

 

 

 

QUESTION 18 In a client with chest trauma, the nurse needs to evaluate mediastinal position. This can best be done by:

 

A. Auscultating bilateral breath sounds

 

B. Palpating for presence of crepitus

 

C. Palpating for trachial deviation

 

D. Auscultating heart sounds

 

 

 

QUESTION 19 Clinical manifestations seen in left-sided rather than in right-sided heart failure are:

 

A. Elevated central venous pressure and peripheral edema

 

B. Dyspnea and jaundice

 

C. Hypotension and hepatomegaly

 

D. Decreased peripheral perfusion and rales

 

 

 

QUESTION 20 In assessing cardiovascular clients with progression of aortic stenosis, the nurse should be aware that there is typically:

 

A. Decreased pulmonary blood flow and cyanosis

 

B. Increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and pulmonary edema

 

C. Systemic venous engorgement

 

D. Increased left ventricular systolic pressures and hypertrophy

 

 

 

QUESTION 21 An 8-year-old child comes to the physician’s office complaining of swelling and pain in the knees. His mother says, “The swelling occurred for no reason, and it keeps getting worse.”

 

The initial diagnosis is Lyme disease. When talking to the mother and child, questions related to which of the following would be important to include in the initial history?

 

A. A decreased urinary output and flank pain

 

B. A fever of over 103F occurring over the last 2–3 weeks

 

C. Rashes covering the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet

 

D. Headaches, malaise, or sore throat

 

 

 

QUESTION 22 When administering phenytoin (Dilantin) to a child, the nurse should be aware that a toxic effect of phenytoin therapy is:

 

A. Stephens-Johnson syndrome

 

B. Folate deficiency

 

C. Leukopenic aplastic anemia

 

D. Granulocytosis and nephrosis

 

 

 

QUESTION 23 The nurse should know that according to current thinking, the most important prognostic factor for a client with breast cancer is:

 

A. Tumor size

 

B. Axillary node status

 

C. Client’s previous history of disease

 

D. Client’s level of estrogen-progesterone receptor assays

 

 

 

QUESTION 24 Three weeks following discharge, a male client is readmitted to the psychiatric unit for depression. His wife stated that he had threatened to kill himself with a handgun. As the nurse admits him to the unit, he says, “I wish I were dead because I am worthless to everyone; I guess I am just no good.” Which response by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?

 

A. “I don’t think you are worthless. I’m glad to see you, and we will help you.”

 

B. “Don’t you think this is a sign of your illness?”

 

C. “I know with your wife and new baby that you do have a lot to live for.”

 

D. “You’ve been feeling sad and alone for some time now?”

 

 

 

QUESTION 25 Which of the following should be included in discharge teaching for a client with hepatitis C?

 

A. He should take aspirin as needed for muscle and joint pain.

 

B. He may become a blood donor when his liver enzymes return to normal.

 

C. He should avoid alcoholic beverages during his recovery period.

 

D. He should use disposable dishes for eating and drinking.

 

 

 

QUESTION 26 The initial treatment for a client with a liquid chemical burn injury is to:

 

A. Irrigate the area with neutralizing solutions

 

B. Flush the exposed area with large amounts of water

 

C. Inject calcium chloride into the burned area

 

D. Apply lanolin ointment to the area

 

 

 

QUESTION 27 Dietary planning is an essential part of the diabetic client’s regimen. The American

 

Diabetes Association recommends which of the following caloric guidelines for daily meal planning?

 

A. 50% complex carbohydrate, 20%–25% protein, 20%–25% fat

 

B. 45% complex carbohydrate, 25%–30% protein, 30%–35% fat

 

C. 70% complex carbohydrate, 20%–30% protein, 10%–20% fat

 

D. 60% complex carbohydrate, 12%–15% protein, 20%–25% fat

 

 

 

QUESTION 28 The primary reason for sending a burn client home with a pressure garment, such as a Jobst garment, is that the garment:

 

A. Decreases hypertrophic scar formation

 

B. Assists with ambulation

 

C. Covers burn scars and decreases the psychological impact during recovery

 

D. Increases venous return and cardiac output by normalizing fluid status

 

 

 

QUESTION 29 The nurse would expect to include which of the following when planning the management of the client with Lyme disease?

 

A. Complete bed rest for 6–8 weeks

 

B. Tetracycline treatment

 

C. IV amphotericin B

 

D. High-protein diet with limited fluids

 

 

 

QUESTION 30 The physician recommends immediate hospital admission for a client with PIH. She says to the nurse, “It’s not so easy for me to just go right to the hospital like that.” After acknowledging her feelings, which of these approaches by the nurse would probably be best?

 

A. Stress to the client that her husband would want her to do what is best for her health.

 

B. Explore with the client her perceptions of why she is unable to go to the hospital.

 

C. Repeat the physician’s reasons for advising immediate hospitalization.

 

D. Explain to the client that she is ultimately responsible for her own welfare and that of her baby.

 

 

 

QUESTION 31 The child with iron poisoning is given IV deforoxamine mesylate (Desferal). Following administration, the child suffers hypotension, facial flushing, and urticari

 

A. The initial nursing intervention would be to:

 

A. Discontinue the IV

 

B. Stop the medication, and begin a normal saline infusion

 

C. Take all vital signs, and report to the physician

 

D. Assess urinary output, and if it is 30 mL an hour, maintain current treatment

 

 

 

QUESTION 32 Provide the 1-minute Apgar score for an infant born with the following findings: Heart rate: Above 100 Respiratory effort: Slow, irregular Muscle tone: Some flexion of extremities Reflex irritability: Vigorous cry Color: Body pink, blue extremities

 

A. 7

 

B. 10

 

C. 8

 

D. 9

 

 

 

QUESTION 33 A client has been diagnosed as being preeclamptic. The physician orders magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) is used in the management of preeclampsia for:

 

A. Prevention of seizures

 

B. Prevention of uterine contractions

 

C. Sedation

 

D. Fetal lung protection

 

 

 

QUESTION 34 In the client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease, the nurse would anticipate the complication of bradycardia with occlusion of which coronary artery?

 

A. Right coronary artery

 

B. Left main coronary artery

 

C. Circumflex coronary artery

 

D. Left anterior descending coronary artery

 

 

 

QUESTION 35 When the nurse is evaluating lab data for a client 18–24 hours after a major thermal burn, the expected physiological changes would include which of the following?

 

A. Elevated serum sodium

 

B. Elevated serum calcium

 

C. Elevated serum protein

 

D. Elevated hematocrit

 

 

 

QUESTION 36 What is the most effective method to identify early breast cancer lumps?

 

A. Mammograms every 3 years

 

B. Yearly checkups performed by physician

 

C. Ultrasounds every 3 years

 

D. Monthly breast self-examination

 

 

 

QUESTION 37 A client with a C-3–4 fracture has just arrived in the emergency room. The primary nursing intervention is:

 

 A. Stabilization of the cervical spine

 

B. Airway assessment and stabilization

 

C. Confirmation of spinal cord injury

 

D. Normalization of intravascular volume

 

 

 

QUESTION 38 To ensure proper client education, the nurse should teach the client taking SL nitroglycerin to expect which of the following responses with administration?

 

A. Stinging, burning when placed under the tongue

 

B. Temporary blurring of vision

 

C. Generalized urticaria with prolonged use

 

D. Urinary frequency

 

 

 

QUESTION 39 Nursing care for the substance abuse client experiencing alcohol withdrawal delirium includes:

 

A. Maintaining seizure precautions

 

B. Restricting fluid intake

 

C. Increasing sensory stimuli

 

D. Applying ankle and wrist restraints

 

 

 

QUESTION 40 The day following his admission, the nurse sits down by a male client on the sofa in the dayroom. He was admitted for depression and thoughts of suicide. He looks at the nurse and says, “My life is so bad no one can do anything to help me.” The most helpful initial response by the nurse would be:

 

A. “It concerns me that you feel so badly when you have so many positive things in your life.”

 

B. “It will take a few weeks for you to feel better, so you need to be patient.”

 

C. “You are telling me that you are feeling hopeless at this point?”

 

D. “Let’s play cards with some of the other clients to get your mind off your problems for now.”

 

 

 

QUESTION 41 The usual treatment for diabetes insipidus is with IM or SC injection of vasopressin tannate in oil. Nursing care related to the client receiving IM vasopressin tannate would include:

 

A. Weigh once a week and report to the physician any weight gain of10 lb.

 

B. Limit fluid intake to 500 mL/day.

 

C. Store the medication in a refrigerator and allow to stand at room temperature for 30 minutes prior to administration.

 

D. Hold the vial under warm water for 10–15 minutes and shake vigorously before drawing medication into the syringe.

 

 

 

QUESTION 42 Proper positioning for the child who is in Bryant’s traction is:

 

A. Both hips flexed at a 90-degree angle with the knees extended and the buttocks elevated off the bed

 

B. Both legs extended, and the hips are not flexed

 

C. The affected leg extended with slight hip flexion

 

D. Both hips and knees maintained at a 90-degree flexion angle, and the back flat on the bed

 

 

 

QUESTION 43 The predominant purpose of the first Apgar scoring of a newborn is to:

 

A. Determine gross abnormal motor function

 

B. Obtain a baseline for comparison with the infant’s future adaptation to the environment

 

C. Evaluate the infant’s vital functions

 

D. Determine the extent of congenital malformations

 

 

 

QUESTION 44 Hematotympanum and otorrhea are associated with which of the following head injuries?

 

A. Basilar skull fracture

 

B. Subdural hematoma

 

C. Epidural hematoma

 

D. Frontal lobe fracture

 

 

 

QUESTION 45 Which of the following risk factors associated with breast cancer would a nurse consider most significant in a client’s history?

 

A. Menarche after age 13

 

B. Nulliparity

 

C. Maternal family history of breast cancer

 

D. Early menopause

 

 

 

QUESTION 46 A client returns for her 6-month prenatal checkup and has gained 10 lb in 2 months. The results of her physical

 

examination are normal. How does the nurse interpret the effectiveness of the instruction about diet and weight control?

 

A. She is compliant with her diet as previously taught.

 

B. She needs further instruction and reinforcement.

 

C. She needs to increase her caloric intake.

 

D. She needs to be placed on a restrictive diet immediately.

 

 

 

QUESTION 47 The priority nursing goal when working with an autistic child is:

 

A. To establish trust with the child

 

B. To maintain communication with the family

 

C. To promote involvement in school activities

 

D. To maintain nutritional requirements

 

 

 

QUESTION 48 The nurse would need to monitor the serum glucose levels of a client receiving which of the following medications, owing to its effects on glycogenolysis and insulin relea

 

A. Norepinephrine (Levophed)

 

B. Dobutamine (Dobutrex)

 

C. Propranolol (Inderal)

 

D. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

 

 

 

QUESTION 49 When a client questions the nurse as to the purpose of exercise electrocardiography (ECG) in the diagnosis of cardiovascular disorders, the nurse’s response should be based on the fact that:

 

A. The test provides a baseline for further tests

 

B. The procedure simulates usual daily activity and myocardial performance

 

C. The client can be monitored while cardiac conditioning and heart toning are done

 

D. Ischemia can be diagnosed because exercise increases O2 consumption and demand

 

 

 

QUESTION 50 The following medications were noted on review of the client’s home medication profile. Which of the medications would most likely potentiate or elevate serum digoxin levels?

 

A. KCl

 

B. Thyroid agents

 

C. Quinidine

 

D. Theophylline

 

 

 

QUESTION 51 Which of the following statements relevant to a suicidal client is correct?

 

A. The more specific a client’s plan, the more likely he or she is to attempt suicide.

 

B. A client who is unsuccessful at a first suicide attempt is not likely to make future attempts.

 

C. A client who threatens suicide is just seeking attention and is not likely to attempt suicide.

 

D. Nurses who care for a client who has attempted suicide should not make any reference to the word “suicide” in order to protect the client’s ego.

 

 

 

QUESTION 52 When assessing a child with diabetes insipidus, the nurse should be aware of the cardinal signs of:

 

A. Anemia and vomiting

 

B. Polyuria and polydipsia

 

C. Irritability relieved by feeding formula

 

D. Hypothermia and azotemia

 

 

 

QUESTION 53 The physician orders fluoxetine (Prozac) for a depressed client. Which of the following should the nurse remember about fluoxetine?

 

A. Because fluoxetine is a tricyclic antidepressant, it may precipitate a hypertensive crisis.

 

B. The therapeutic effect of the drug occurs 2–4 weeks after treatment is begun.

 

C. Foods such as aged cheese, yogurt, soy sauce, and bananas should not be eaten with this drug.

 

D. Fluoxetine may be administered safely in combination with monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors.

 

 

 

QUESTION 54 A child sustains a supracondylar fracture of the femur. When assessing for vascular injury, the nurse should be alert for the signs of ischemia, which include:

 

A. Bleeding, bruising, and hemorrhage

 

B. Increase in serum levels of creatinine, alkaline phosphatase, and aspartate transaminase

 

C. Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis

 

D. Generalized swelling, pain, and diminished functional use with muscle rigidity and crepitus

 

 

 

QUESTION 55 A client with a diagnosis of C-4 injury has been stabilized and is ready for discharge. Because this client is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia, he and his family should be instructed to assess for and report:

 

A. Dizziness and tachypnea

 

B. Circumoral pallor and lightheadedness

 

C. Headache and facial flushing

 

D. Pallor and itching of the face and neck

 

 

 

QUESTION 56 A client with emphysema is placed on diuretics. In order to avoid potassium depletion as a side effect of the drug therapy, which of the following foods should be included in his diet?

 

A. Celery

 

B. Potatoes

 

C. Tomatoes

 

D. Liver

 

 

 

QUESTION 57 Which of the following signs and symptoms indicates a tension pneumothorax as compared to an open pneumothorax?

 

A. Ventilation-perfusion (V./Q.) mismatch

 

B. Hypoxemia and respiratory acidosis

 

C. Mediastinal tissue and organ shifting

 

D. Decreased tidal volume and tachypnea

 

 

 

QUESTION 58 A 38-year-old pregnant woman visits her nurse practitioner for her regular prenatal checkup. She is 30 weeks’ gestation. The nurse should be alert to which condition related to her age?

 

A. Iron-deficiency anemia

 

B. Sexually transmitted disease (STD)

 

C. Intrauterine growth retardation

 

D. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)

 

 

 

QUESTION 59 A type I diabetic client is diagnosed with cellulitis in his right lower extremity. The nurse would expect which of the following to be present in relation to his blood sugar level?

 

A. A normal blood sugar level

 

B. A decreased blood sugar level

 

C. An increased blood sugar level

 

D. Fluctuating levels with a predawn increase

 

 

 

QUESTION 60 A laboratory technique specific for diagnosing Lyme disease is:

 

A. Polymerase chain reaction

 

B. Heterophil antibody test

 

C. Decreased serum calcium level

 

D. Increased serum potassium level Answer: A

 

 

 

QUESTION 61 The cardiac client who exhibits the symptoms of disorientation, lethargy, and seizures may be exhibiting a toxic reaction to:

 

A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)

 

B. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)

 

C. Quinidine gluconate or sulfate (Quinaglute, Quinidex)

 

D. Nitroglycerin IV (Tridil)

 

 

 

QUESTION 62 A 27-year-old man was diagnosed with type I diabetes 3 months ago. Two weeks ago he complained of pain, redness, and tenderness in his right lower leg. He is admitted to the hospital with a slight elevation of temperature and vague complaints of “not feeling well.” At 4:30 PM on the day of his admission, his blood glucose level is 50 mg; dinner will be served at 5:00 PM. The best nursing action would be to:

 

A. Give him 3 tbsp of sugar dissolved in 4 oz of grape juice to drink

 

B. Ask him to dissolve three pieces of hard candy in his mouth

 

C. Have him drink 4 oz of orange juice

 

D. Monitor him closely until dinner arrives

 

 

 

QUESTION 63 After 3 weeks of treatment, a severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better and starts interacting appropriately with other clients and staff. The nurse knows that this client has an increased risk for:

 

A. Suicide

 

B. Exacerbation of depressive symptoms

 

C. Violence toward others

 

D. Psychotic behavior

 

 

 

QUESTION 64 Discharge teaching was effective if the parents of a child with atopic dermatitis could state the importance of:

 

A. Maintaining a high-humidified environment

 

B. Furry, soft stuffed animals for play

 

C. Showering 3–4 times a day

 

D. Wrapping hands in soft cotton gloves

 

 

 

QUESTION 65 Which of the following would differentiate acute from chronic respiratory acidosis in the assessment of the trauma client?

 

A. Increased PaCO2

 

B. Decreased PaO2

 

C. Increased HCO3

 

D. Decreased base excess

 

 

 

QUESTION 66 When a client is receiving vasoactive therapy IV, such as dopamine (Intropin), and extravasation occurs, the nurse should be prepared to administer which of the following medications directly into the site?

 

A. Phentolamine (Regitine)

 

B. Epinephrine

 

C. Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)

 

D. Sodium bicarbonate

 

 

 

QUESTION 67 A male client receives 10 U of regular human insulin SC at 9:00 AM. The nurse would expect peak action from this injection to occur at:

 

A. 9:30 AM

 

B. 10:30 AM

 

C. 12 noon

 

D. 4:00 PM

 

 

 

QUESTION 68 As the nurse assesses a male adolescent with chlamydia, the nurse determines that a sign of chlamydia is:

 

A. Enlarged penis

 

B. Secondary lymphadenitis

 

C. Epididymitis

 

D. Hepatomegaly

 

 

 

QUESTION 69 One of the most dramatic and serious complications associated with bacterial meningitis is Waterhouse- Friderichsen syndrome, which is:

 

A. Peripheral circulatory collapse

 

B. Syndrome of inappropriate antiduretic hormone

 

C. Cerebral edema resulting in hydrocephalus

 

D. Auditory nerve damage resulting in permanent hearing loss

 

 

 

QUESTION 70 Priapism may be a sign of:

 

A. Altered neurological function

 

B. Imminent death

 

C. Urinary incontinence

 

D. Reproductive dysfunction

 

 

 

QUESTION 71 When assessing fetal heart rate status during labor, the monitor displays late decelerations with tachycardia and decreasing variability. What action should the nurse take?

 

A. Continue monitoring because this is a normal occurrence.

 

B. Turn client on right side.

 

C. Decrease IV fluids.

 

D. Report to physician or midwife.

 

 

 

QUESTION 72 The most commonly known vectors of Lyme disease are:

 

A. Mites

 

B. Fleas

 

C. Ticks

 

D. Mosquitoes

 

 

 

QUESTION 73 A child is admitted to the emergency room with her mother. Her mother states that she has been exposed to chickenpox. During the assessment, the nurse would note a characteristic rash:

 

A. That is covered with vesicular scabs all in the macular stage

 

B. That appears profusely on the trunk and sparsely on the extremities

 

C. That first appears on the neck and spreads downward

 

D. That appears especially on the cheeks, which gives a “slapped-cheek” appearance

 

 

 

QUESTION 74 A client is 6 weeks pregnant. During her first prenatal visit, she asks, “How much alcohol is safe to drink during pregnancy?” The nurse’s response is:

 

A. Up to 1 oz daily

 

B. Up to 2 oz daily

 

C. Up to 4 oz weekly

 

D. No alcohol

 

 

 

QUESTION 75 Which of the following would the nurse expect to find following respiratory assessment of a client with advanced emphysema?

 

A. Distant breath sounds

 

B. Increased heart sounds

 

C. Decreased anteroposterior chest diameter

 

D. Collapsed neck veins

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