Nursing interventions designed to decrease the risk of infection in a client with an indwelling catheter include:

QUESTION 76Nursing interventions designed to decrease the risk of infection in a client with an indwelling catheter include:

 

A. Cleanse area around the meatus twice a day

 

B. Empty the catheter drainage bag at least daily

 

C. Change the catheter tubing and bag every 48 hours

 

D. Maintain fluid intake of 12001500 mL every day

 

QUESTION 77A client tells the nurse that she has had a history of urinary tract infections. The nurse would do further health teaching if she verbalizes she will:

 

A. Drink at least 8 oz of cranberry juice daily

 

B. Maintain a fluid intake of at least 2000 mL daily

 

C. Wash her hands before and after voiding

 

D. Limit her fluid intake after 6 PM so that there is not a great deal of urine in her bladder while she sleeps

 

QUESTION 78The nurse provides a male client with diet teaching so that he can help prevent constipation in the future. Which food choices indicate that this teaching has been

 

understood?

 

A. Omelette and hash browns

 

B. Pancakes and syrup

 

C. Bagel with cream cheese

 

D. Cooked oatmeal and grapefruit half

 

QUESTION 79The nurse teaches a male client ways to reduce the risks associated with furosemide therapy. Which of the following indicates that he understands this teaching?

 

A. “I’ll be sure to rise slowly and sit for a few minutes after lying down.”

 

B. “I’ll be sure to walk at least 23 blocks every day.”

 

C. “I’ll be sure to restrict my fluid intake to four or five glasses a day.”

 

D. “I’ll be sure not to take any more aspirin while I amon this drug.”

 

QUESTION 80The nurse would be sure to instruct a client on the signs and symptoms of an eye infection and hemorrhage. These signs and symptoms would include:

 

A. Blurred vision and dizziness

 

B. Eye pain and itching

 

C. Feeling of eye pressure and headache

 

D. Eye discharge and hemoptysis

 

QUESTION 81With a geriatric client, the nurse should also assess whether he has been obtaining a yearly vaccination against influenza. Why is this assessment important?

 

A. Influenza is growing in our society.

 

B. Older clients generally are sicker than others when stricken with flu.

 

C. Older clients have less effective immune systems.

 

D. Older clients have more exposure to the causative agents.

 

QUESTION 82Which of the following menu choices would indicate that a client with pressure ulcers understands the role diet plays in restoring her albumin levels?

 

A. Broiled fish with rice

 

B. Bran flakes with fresh peaches

 

C. Lasagna with garlic bread

 

D. Cauliflower and lettuce salad

 

QUESTION 83The nurse observes that a client has difficulty chewing and swallowing her food. A nursing response designed to reduce this problem would include:

 

A. Ordering a full liquid diet for her

 

B. Ordering five small meals for her

 

C. Ordering a mechanical soft diet for her

 

D. Ordering a puréed diet for her

 

QUESTION 84When a client with pancreatitis is discharged, the nurse needs to teach him how to prevent another occurrence of acute pancreatitis. Which of the following

 

statements would indicate he has an understanding of his disease?

 

A. “I will not eat any raw or uncooked vegetables.”

 

B. “I will limit my alcohol to one cocktail per day.”

 

C. “I will look into attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings.”

 

D. “I will report any changes in bowel movements to my doctor.”

 

QUESTION 85A 54-year-old client is admitted to the hospital with a possible gastric ulcer. He is a heavy smoker. When discussing his smoking habits with him, the nurse should

 

advise him to:

 

A. Smoke low-tar, filtered cigarettes

 

B. Smoke cigars instead

 

C. Smoke only right after meals

 

D. Chew gum instead

 

QUESTION 86Iron dextran (Imferon) is a parenteral iron preparation.

 

The nurse should know that it:

 

A. Is also called intrinsic factor

 

B. Must be given in the abdomen

 

C. Requires use of the Z-track method

 

D. Should be given SC

 

QUESTION 87A nasogastric (NG) tube inserted preoperatively is attached to low, intermittent suctions. A client with an NG tube exhibits these symptoms: He is restless; serum

 

electrolytes are Na 138, K 4.0, blood pH 7.53. This client is most likely experiencing:

 

A. Hyperkalemia

 

B. Hyponatremia

 

C. Metabolic acidosis

 

D. Metabolic alkalosis

 

QUESTION 88A client is experiencing muscle weakness and lethargy. His serum K+is 3.2. What other symptoms might he exhibit?

 

A. Tetany

 

B. Dysrhythmias

 

C. Numbness of extremities

 

D. Headache

 

QUESTION 89Following a gastric resection, which of the following actions would the nurse reinforce with the client in order to alleviate the distress from dumping syndrome?

 

A. Eating three large meals a day

 

B. Drinking small amounts of liquids with meals

 

C. Taking a long walk after meals

 

D. Eating a low-carbohydrate diet

 

QUESTION 90Azulfidine (Sulfasalazine) may be ordered for a client who has ulcerative colitis. Which of the following is a nursing implication for this drug?

 

A. Limit fluids to 500 mL/day.

 

B. Administer 2 hours before meals.

 

C. Observe for skin rash and diarrhea.

 

D. Monitor blood pressure, pulse.

 

QUESTION 91Other drugs may be ordered to manage a client’s ulcerative colitis. Which of the following medications, if ordered, would the nurse question?

 

A. Methylprednisolone sodium succinate (Solu-Medrol)

 

B. Loperamide (Imodium)

 

C. Psyllium

 

D. 6-Mercaptopurine

 

QUESTION 92A male client is scheduled for a liver biopsy. In preparing him for this test, the nurse should:

 

A. Explain that he will be kept NPO for 24 hours before the exam

 

B. Practice with him so he will be able to hold his breath for 1 minute

 

C. Explain that he will be receiving a laxative to prevent a distended bowel from applying pressure on the liver

 

D. Explain that his vital signs will be checked frequently after the test

 

QUESTION 93After a liver biopsy, the best position for the client is:

 

A. High Fowler

 

B. Prone

 

C. Supine

 

D. Right lateral

 

QUESTION 94A complication for which the nurse should be alert following a liver biopsy is:

 

A. Hepatic coma

 

B. Jaundice

 

C. Ascites

 

D. Shock

 

QUESTION 95Which nursing implication is appropriate for a client undergoing a paracentesis?

 

A. Have the client void before the procedure.

 

B. Keep the client NPO.

 

C. Observe the client for hypertension following the procedure.

 

D. Place the client on the right side following the procedure.

 

QUESTION 96The nurse would assess the client’s correct understanding of the fertility awareness methods that enhance conception, if the client stated that:

 

A. “My sexual partner and I should have intercourse when my cervical mucosa is thick and cloudy.”

 

B. “At ovulation, my basal body temperature should rise about 0.5F.”

 

C. “I should douche immediately after intercourse.”

 

D. “My sexual partner and I should have sexual intercourse on day 14 of my cycle regardless of the length of the cycle.”

 

QUESTION 97A couple is planning the conception of their first child. The wife, whose normal menstrual cycle is 34 days in length, correctly identifies the time that she is most

 

likely to ovulate if she states that ovulation should occur on day:

 

A. 14+2 days

 

B. 16+2 days

 

C. 20+2 days

 

D. 22+2 days

 

QUESTION 98A client is pregnant with her second child. Her last menstrual period began on January 15. Her expected date of delivery would be:

 

A. October 8

 

B. October 15

 

C. October 22

 

D. October 29

 

QUESTION 99The nurse instructs a pregnant client (G2P1) to rest in a side-lying position and avoid lying flat on her back. The nurse explains that this is to avoid “vena caval

 

syndrome,” a condition which:

 

A. Occurs when blood pressure increases sharply with changes in position

 

B. Results when blood flow from the extremities is blocked or slowed

 

C. Is seen mainly in first pregnancies

 

D. May require medication if positioning does not help

 

QUESTION 100A pregnant client comes to the office for her first prenatal examination at 10 weeks. She has been pregnant twice before; the first delivery produced a viable baby

 

girl at 39 weeks 3 years ago; the second pregnancy produced a viable baby boy at 36 weeks 2 years ago. Both children are living and well. Using the GTPAL

 

system to record her obstetrical history, the nurse should record:

 

http://www.gratisexam.com/

 

A. 3-2-0-0-2

 

B. 2-2-0-2-2

 

C. 3-1-1-0-2

 

D. 2-1-1-0-2

 

QUESTION 101A pregnant client comes to the office for her first prenatal examination at 10 weeks. She has been pregnant twice before; the first delivery produced a viable baby

 

girl at 39 weeks 3 years ago; the second pregnancy produced a viable baby boy at 36 weeks 2 years ago. Both children are living and well. Using the gravida and

 

para system to record the client’s obstetrical history, the nurse should record:

 

A. Gravida 3 para 1

 

B. Gravida 3 para 2

 

C. Gravida 2 para 1

 

D. Gravida 2 para 2

 

QUESTION 102A gravida 2 para 1 client is hospitalized with severe preeclampsia. While she receives magnesium sulfate

 

(MgSO4) therapy, the nurse knows it is safe to repeat the dosage if:

 

A. Deep tendon reflexes are absent

 

B. Urine output is 20 mL/hr

 

C. MgSO4serum levels are>15 mg/dL

 

D. Respirations are>16 breaths/min

 

QUESTION 103Prenatal clients are routinely monitored for early signs of pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). For the prenatal client, which of the following blood pressure

 

changes from baseline would be most significant for the nurse to report as indicative of PIH?

 

A. 136/88 to 144/93

 

B. 132/78 to 124/76

 

C. 114/70 to 140/88

 

D. 140/90 to 148/98

 

QUESTION 104In assisting preconceptual clients, the nurse should teach that the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which thickens the endometrial lining in which of the

 

phases of the menstrual cycle?

 

A. Menstrual phase

 

B. Proliferative phase

 

C. Secretory phase

 

D. Ischemic phase

 

QUESTION 105A client decided early in her pregnancy to breast-feed her first baby. She gave birth to a normal, full-term girl and is now progressing toward the establishment of

 

successful lactation. To remove the baby from her breast, she should be instructed to:

 

A. Gently pull the infant away

 

B. Withdraw the breast from the infant’s mouth

 

C. Compress the areolar tissue until the infant drops the nipple from her mouth

 

D. Insert a clean finger into the baby’s mouth beside the nipple

 

QUESTION 106A gravida 2 para 1 client delivered a full-term newborn 12 hours ago. The nurse finds her uterus to be boggy, high, and deviated to the right. The most appropriate

 

nursing action is to:

 

A. Notify the physician

 

B. Place the client on a pad count

 

C. Massage the uterus and re-evaluate in 30 minutes

 

D. Have the client void and then re-evaluate the fundus

 

QUESTION 107A client delivered her first-born son 4 hours ago. She asks the nurse what the white cheeselike substance is under the baby’s arms. The nurse should respond:

 

A. “This is a normal skin variation in newborns. It will go away in a few days.”

 

B. “Let me have a closer look at it. The baby may have an infection.”

 

C. “This material, called vernix, covered the baby before it was born. It will disappear in a few days.”

 

D. “Babies sometimes have sebaceous glands that get plugged at birth. This substance is an example of that condition.”

 

QUESTION 108A client is in early labor. Her fetus is in a left occipitoanterior (LOA) position; fetal heart sounds are best auscultated just:

 

A. Below the umbilicus toward left side of mother’s abdomen

 

B. Below the umbilicus toward right side of mother’s abdomen

 

C. At the umbilicus

 

D. Above the umbilicus to the left side of mother’s abdomen

 

QUESTION 109In performing the initial nursing assessment on a client at the prenatal clinic, the nurse will know that which of the following alterations is abnormal during

 

pregnancy?

 

A. Striae gravidarum

 

B. Chloasma

 

C. Dysuria

 

D. Colostrum

 

QUESTION 110A 35-weeks-pregnant client is undergoing a nonstress test (NST). During the 20-minute examination, the nurse notes three fetal movements accompanied by

 

accelerations of the fetal heart rate, each 15 bpm, lasting

 

15 seconds. The nurse interprets this test to be:

 

A. Nonreactive

 

B. Reactive

 

C. Positive

 

D. Negative

 

QUESTION 111The nurse is caring for a laboring client. Assessment data include cervical dilation 9 cm; contractions every 12 minutes; strong, large amount of “bloody show.” The

 

most appropriate nursing goal for this client would be:

 

A. Maintain client’s privacy.

 

B. Assist with assessment procedures.

 

C. Provide strategies to maintain client control.

 

D. Enlist additional caregiver support to ensure client’s safety.

 

QUESTION 112A client is admitted to the labor unit. On vaginal examination, the presenting part in a cephalic presentation was at station plus two. Station 12 means that the:

 

A. Presenting part is 2 cm above the level of the ischial spines

 

B. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines

 

C. Presenting part is 2 cm below the level of the ischial spines

 

D. Biparietal diameter is 5 cm above the ischial spines

 

QUESTION 113A pregnant client is at the clinic for a third trimester prenatal visit. During this examination, it has been determined that her fetus is in a vertex presentation with the

 

occiput located in her right anterior quadrant. On her chart this would be noted as:

 

A. Right occipitoposterior

 

B. Right occipitoanterior

 

C. Right sacroanterior

 

D. LOA

 

QUESTION 114Assessment of parturient reveals the following: cervical dilation 6 cm and station 22; no progress in the last 4 hours. Uterine contractions decreasing in frequency

 

and intensity. Marked molding of the presenting fetal head is described. The physician orders, “Begin oxytocin induction at 1 mU/min.” The nurse should:

 

A. Begin the oxytocin induction as ordered

 

B. Increase the dosage by 2 mU/min increments at15-minute intervals

 

C. Maintain the dosage when duration of contractions is 4060 seconds and frequency is at 21/2 4 minute intervals

 

D. Question the order

 

QUESTION 115A client in active labor asks the nurse for coaching with her breathing during contractions. The client has attended Lamaze birth preparation classes. Which of the

 

following is the best response by the nurse?

 

A. “Keep breathing with your abdominal muscles as long as you can.”

 

B. “Make sure you take a deep cleansing breath as the contractions start, focus on an object, and breathe about 1620 times a minute with shallow chest breaths.”

 

C. “Find a comfortable position before you start a contraction. Once the contraction has started, take slow breaths using your abdominal muscles.”

 

D. “If a woman in labor listens to her body and takes rapid, deep breaths, she will be able to deal with her contractions quite well.”

 

QUESTION 116A client is being discharged and will continue enteral feedings at home. Which of the following statements by a family member indicates the need for further

 

teaching?

 

A. “If he develops diarrhea lasting for more than 23 days, I will contact the doctor or nurse.”

 

B. “I should anticipate that he will gain about 1 lb/day now that he is on continuous feedings.”

 

C. “It is important to keep the head of his bed elevated or sit him in the chair during feedings.”

 

D. “I should use prepared or open formula within 24 hours and store unused portions in the refrigerator.”

 

QUESTION 117A 74-year-old obese man who has undergone open reduction and internal fixation of the right hip is 8 days postoperative. He has a history of arthritis and atrial

 

fibrillation. He admits to right lower leg pain, described as “a cramp in my leg.” An appropriate nursing action is to:

 

A. Assess for pain with plantiflexion

 

B. Assess for edema and heat of the right leg

 

C. Instruct him to rub the cramp out of his leg

 

D. Elevate right lower extremity with pillows propped under the knee

 

QUESTION 118A male client is started on IV anticoagulant therapy with heparin. Which of the following laboratory studies will be ordered to monitor the therapeutic effects of

 

heparin?

 

A. Partial thromboplastin time

 

B. Hemoglobin

 

C. Red blood cell (RBC) count

 

D. Prothrombin time

 

QUESTION 119A client is being discharged on warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. The nurse instructs him about using this drug. Which following response by the client

 

indicates the need for further teaching?

 

A. “I should shave with my electric razor while on Coumadin.”

 

B. “I will inform my dentist that I am on anticoagulant therapy before receiving dental work.”

 

C. “I will continue with my usual dosage of aspirin for my arthritis when I return home.”

 

D. “I will wear an ID bracelet stating that I am on anticoagulants.”

 

QUESTION 120A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). She is started on an aminophylline infusion. Three days later

 

she is breathing easier. A serum theophylline level is drawn. Which of the following values represents a therapeutic level?

 

A. 14 μ g/mL

 

B. 25 μ g/mL

 

C. 4 μ g/mL

 

D. 30 μ g/mL

 

QUESTION 121A client is being discharged with albuterol (Proventil) and beclomethasone dipropionate (Vanceril) to be administered via inhalation three times a day and at

 

bedtime. Client teaching regarding the sequential order in which the drugs should be administered includes:

 

A. Glucocorticoid followed by the bronchodilator

 

B. Bronchodilator followed by the glucocorticoid

 

C. Alternate successive administrations

 

D. According to the client’s preference

 

QUESTION 122To prevent fungal infections of the mouth and throat, the nurse should teach clients on inhaled steroids to:

 

A. Rinse the plastic holder that aerosolizes the drug with hydrogen peroxide every other day

 

B. Rinse the mouth and gargle with warm water after each use of the inhaler

 

C. Take antacids immediately before inhalation to neutralize mucous membranes and prevent infection

 

D. Rinse the mouth before each use to eliminate colonization of bacteria

 

QUESTION 123Which of the following would indicate the need for further teaching for the client with COPD? The client verbalizes the need to:

 

A. Eat high-calorie, high-protein foods

 

B. Take vitamin supplementation

 

C. Eliminate intake of milk and milk products

 

D. Eat small, frequent meals

 

QUESTION 124A dose of theophylline may need to be altered if a client with COPD:

 

A. Is allergic to morphine

 

B. Has a history of arthritis

 

C. Operates machinery

 

D. Is concurrently on cimetidine for ulcers

 

QUESTION 125The nurse working in a prenatal clinic needs to be alert to the cardinal signs and symptoms of PIH because:

 

A. Immediate treatment of mild PIH includes the administration of a variety of medications

 

B. Psychological counseling is indicated to reduce the emotional stress causing the blood pressure elevation

 

C. Self-discipline is required to control caloric intake throughout the pregnancy

 

D. The client may not recognize the early symptoms of PIH

 

QUESTION 126Which of the following changes in blood pressure readings should be of greatest concern to the nurse when assessing a prenatal client?

 

A. 130/88 to 144/92

 

B. 136/90 to 148/100

 

C. 150/96 to 160/104

 

D. 118/70 to 130/88

 

QUESTION 127A 16-year-old client comes to the prenatal clinic for her monthly appointment. She has gained 14 lb from her 7th to 8th month; her face and hands indicate edema.

 

She is diagnosed as having PIH and referred to the high-risk prenatal clinic. The client’s weight increase is most likely due to:

 

A. Overeating and subsequent obesity

 

B. Obesity prior to conception

 

C. Hypertension due to kidney lesions

 

D. Fluid retention

 

QUESTION 128MgSO4 is ordered IV following the established protocol for a client with severe PIH. The anticipated effects of this therapy are anticonvulsant and:

 

A. Vasoconstrictive

 

B. Vasodilative

 

C. Hypertensive

 

D. Antiemetic

 

QUESTION 129A nurse should carefully monitor a client for the following side effect of MgSO4:

 

A. Visual blurring

 

B. Tachypnea

 

C. Epigastric pain

 

D. Respiratory depression

 

QUESTION 130MgSO4 blood levels are monitored and the nurse would be prepared to administer the following antidote for MgSO4 side effects or toxicity:

 

A. Magnesium oxide

 

B. Calcium hydroxide

 

C. Calcium gluconate

 

D. Naloxone (Narcan)

 

QUESTION 131A client with severe PIH receiving MgSO4 is placed in a quiet, darkened room. The nurse bases this action on the following understanding:

 

A. The client is restless.

 

B. The elevated blood pressure causes photophobia.

 

C. Noise or bright lights may precipitate a convulsion.

 

D. External stimuli are annoying to the client with PIH.

 

QUESTION 132A 26-year-old client is admitted to the labor, delivery, recovery, postpartum unit. The nurse completes her assessment and determines the client is in the first stage

 

of labor. The nurse should instruct her:

 

A. To hold her breath during contractions

 

B. To be flat on her back

 

C. Not to push with her contractions

 

D. To push before becoming fully dilated

 

QUESTION 133In addition to changing the mother’s position to relieve cord pressure, the nurse may employ the following measure (s) in the event that she observes the cord out

 

of the vagina:

 

A. Immediately pour sterile saline on the cord, and repeat this every 15 minutes to prevent drying.

 

B. Cover the cord with a wet sponge.

 

C. Apply a cord clamp to the exposed cord, and cover with a sterile towel.

 

D. Keep the cord warm and moist by continuous applications of warm, sterile saline compresses.

 

QUESTION 134Which of the following signs might indicate a complication during the labor process with vertex presentation?

 

A. Fetal tachycardia to 170 bpm during a contraction

 

B. Nausea and vomiting at 810 cm dilation

 

C. Contraction lasting 60 seconds

 

D. Appearance of dark-colored amniotic fluid

 

QUESTION 135A client is admitted to the hospital for an induction of labor owing to a gestation of 42 weeks confirmed by dates and ultrasound. When she is dilated 3 cm, she has

 

a contraction of 70 seconds. She is receiving oxytocin.

 

The nurse’s first intervention should be to:

 

A. Check FHT

 

B. Notify the attending physician

 

C. Turn off the IV oxytocin

 

D. Prepare for the delivery because the client is probably in transition

 

QUESTION 136During a client’s first postpartum day, the nurse assessed that the fundus was located laterally to the umbilicus.

 

This may be due to:

 

A. Endometritis

 

B. Fibroid tumor on the uterus

 

C. Displacement due to bowel distention

 

D. Urine retention or a distended bladder

 

QUESTION 137The nurse would be concerned if a client exhibited which of the following symptoms during her postpartum stay?

 

A. Pulse rate of 5070 bpm by her third postpartum day

 

B. Diuresis by her second or third postpartum day

 

C. Vaginal discharge or rubra, serosa, then rubra

 

D. Diaphoresis by her third postpartum day

 

QUESTION 138A postpartum client complains of rectal pressure and severe pain in her perineum; this may be indicative of:

 

A. Afterbirth pains

 

B. Constipation

 

C. Cystitis

 

D. A hematoma of the vagina or vulva

 

QUESTION 139After a 10-year-old child with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus receives her dinner tray, she tells the nurse that she hates broccoli and wants some corn on the

 

cob. The nurse’s appropriate response is:

 

A. “No vegetable exchanges are allowed.”

 

B. “Corn and other starchy vegetables are considered to be bread exchanges.”

 

C. “Yes, you may exchange any vegetable for any other vegetable.”

 

D. “Yes, but only one-half ear is allowed.”

 

QUESTION 140The nurse is teaching a 10-year-old insulin-dependent diabetic how to administer insulin. Which one of the following steps must be taught for insulin administration?

 

A. Never use abdominal site for a rotation site.

 

B. Pinch the skin up to form a subcutaneous pocket.

 

C. Avoid applying pressure after injection.

 

D. Change needles after injection.

 

QUESTION 141In assessing the nature of the stool of a client who has cystic fibrosis, what would the nurse expect to see?

 

A. Clay-colored stools

 

B. Steatorrhea stools

 

C. Dark brown stools

 

D. Blood-tinged stools

 

QUESTION 142A group of nursing students at a local preschool day care center are going to screen each child’s fine and gross motor, language, and social skills. The students will

 

use which one of the most widely used screening tests?

 

A. Revised Prescreening Developmental Questionnaire

 

B. Goodenough Draw-a-Person Screening Test

 

C. Denver Development Screening Test

 

D. Caldwell Home Inventory

 

QUESTION 143A mother came to the pediatric clinic with her 17- month-old child. The mother would like to begin toilet training. What should the nurse teach her about

 

implementing toilet training?

 

A. Take two or three favorite toys with the child.

 

B. Have a child-sized toilet seat or training potty on hand.

 

C. Explain to the child she is going to “void” and “defecate.”

 

D. Show disapproval if she does not void or defecate.

 

QUESTION 144A mother is unsure about the type of toys for her 17-month-old child. Based on knowledge of growth and development, what toy would the nurse suggest?

 

A. A pull toy to encourage locomotion

 

B. A mobile to improve hand-eye coordination

 

C. A large toy with movable parts to improve pincer grasp

 

D. Various large colored blocks to teach visual discrimination

 

QUESTION 145A 16-year-old student has a long history of bronchial asthma and has experienced several severe asthmatic attacks during the school year. The school nurse is

 

required to administer 0.2 mL of 1/1000 solution of epinephrine SC during an asthma attack. How does the school nurse evaluate the effectiveness of this

 

intervention?

 

A. Increased pulse rate

 

B. Increased expectorate of secretions

 

C. Decreased inspiratory difficulty

 

D. Increased respiratory rate

 

QUESTION 146Respiratory function is altered in a 16-year-old asthmatic. Which of the following is the cause of this alteration?

 

A. Altered surfactant production

 

B. Paradoxical movements of the chest wall

 

C. Increased airway resistance

 

D. Continuous changes in respiratory rate and depth

 

QUESTION 147A mother frantically calls the emergency room (ER) asking what to do about her 3-year-old girl who was found eating pills out of a bottle in the medicine cabinet.

 

The ER nurse tells the mother

 

to:

 

A. Give the child 15 mL of syrup of ipecac.

 

B. Give the child 10 mL of syrup of ipecac with a sip of water.

 

C. Give the child 1 cup of water to induce vomiting.

 

D. Bring the child to the ER immediately.

 

QUESTION 148A mother brings her 3-year-old child who is unconscious but breathing to the ER with an apparent drug overdose. The mother found an empty bottle of aspirin next

 

to her child in the bathroom. Which nursing action is the most appropriate?

 

A. Put in a nasogastric tube and lavage the child’s stomach.

 

B. Monitor muscular status.

 

C. Teach mother poison prevention techniques.

 

D. Place child on respiratory assistance.

 

QUESTION 149A parent told the public health nurse that her 6-year-old son has been taking tetracycline for a chronic skin condition. The parent asked if this could cause any

 

problems for the child. What should the nurse explain to the parent?

 

A. Giving tetracycline to a child younger than 8 years may cause permanent staining of his teeth.

 

B. If you give tetracycline with milk, it may be absorbed readily.

 

C. The medication should be given to adults, not children.

 

D. Secondary infections of chronic skin disorders do not respond to antibiotics.

 

QUESTION 150A 6-month-old infant has developmental delays. His weight falls below the 5th percentile when plotted on a growth chart. A diagnosis of failure to thrive is made.

 

What behaviors might indicate the possibility of maternal deprivation?

 

A. Responsive to touch, wants to be held

 

B. Uncomforted by touch, refuses bottle

 

C. Maintains eye-to-eye contact

 

D. Finicky eater, easily pacified, cuddly

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