What is the most common cause of cellular injury?
ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Can interfere with the excretion of and thus increase an individual’s predisposition to gout.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
Lead; urate.
Lead; lactic acid.
Copper; ceruloplasmin.
Copper; urate.
Question 2What is the most common cause of cellular injury?
Hypoxic injury.
Chemical injury.
Mechanical trauma.
Radical-induced injury.
Question 3Most type reactions are allergic mediated by .
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
I; IgE.
I; IgA.
II; IgE.
III; IgA.
Question 4Which statement is true regarding hypersensitivity reactions?
They require sensitization against a particular antigen.
They occur after the primary immune response.
Reactions are always delayed.
The most delayed reaction is anaphylaxis.
Question 5 reaction is caused by the formation of immune complexes in the blood and their deposition in target tissues, while reaction deposits complexes into the walls of blood vessels.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
Serums sickness; Arthus.
Arthus; serum sickness.
Type IV; Arthus.
Serum sickness; type III.
Question 6 is an increase in the number of cells caused by an increased rate of cellular division.
Hyperplasia.
Hypertrophy.
Dysplasia.
Metaplasia.
Question 7Which of the following statements is not true about cellular apoptosis?
It is an active process that involves cellular self-destruction.
It involves deletion of cells during embryonic development.
It involves cell death caused by severe and sudden injury.
It involves nuclear and cytoplasmic shrinkage of a cell.
Question 8Individuals with defects of the cell-mediated immune response are prone to infections, while those with defects of the hormonal immune responses are prone to infections.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
viral; bacterial.
fungal; viral.
bacterial; viral.
viral; fungal.
Question 9What are the principal effector cells involved in type III reactions?
Mast cells.
Macrophages.
Neutrophils.
Lymphocytes.
Question 10Which statement is true regarding autosomal recessive inheritance?
Parents will always display the trait.
Approximately 50% of children will display the trait.
Males and females are equally affected.
The child must be heterozygous to display a recessive trait.
Question 11The reversible replacement of one mature cell by a less mature cell type is known as:
Metaplasia.
Hyperplasia.
Atrophy.
Dysplasia.
Question 12Which of the following form of necrosis is associated with acute tubercular necrosis of the kidney?
Coagulative.
Liquefactive.
Fat.
Caseous.
Question 13Which of the following is not true regarding a type IV allergic reaction?
Its action is delayed with a 24-72-hour onset.
It is infiltrated with lymphocytes and macrophages.
It has a clear center surrounding by redness.
It can be transferred by cells and serum.
Question 14Myasthenia gravis is an example of which of the following?
Alloimmune disease.
Type II hypersensitivity.
Type IV reaction.
Primary Immune deficiency.
Question 15Which of the following is true regarding X-lined genes inheritance?
X-linked recessive diseases are seen much more often in males than in females.
Males need only two copies of the X-linked recessive gene to express the disease.
Fathers can pass X-linked recessive diseases to their sons and daughters.
Skipped generations are rarely seen in X-linked recessive diseases.
NUR505 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Module 2 Quiz
Question 1A patient with atherosclerosis will unlikely manifest which of the following signs?
Xanthelasmas
Carotid arterial bruits
Arcus senilis.
Aortic diastolic murmur.
Question 2A patient presents with fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and left upper quadrant abdominal pain. His white blood cell (WBC) count was 42,000 cell/mm3. Bone marrow aspiration was done and cytogenetic studies revealed the Philadelphia chromosome. Which of the following statements are correct?
Select all that apply.
The Philadelphia chromosome is a diagnostic abnormality for chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML).
The Philadelphia chromosome is the most common genetic abnormality in leukemic cells.
Imatinib (Gleevec) is a drug of choice that inhibits leukemic cells produced by the Philadelphia chromosome.
The Philadelphia chromosome results from reciprocal translocation of genetic materials between chromosome 10 and 21.
The Philadelphia chromosome is commonly seen in children with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL).
Question 3.A patient is experiencing a transmural heart attack. Which of the patient’s enzymes are expected to be elevated?
Select all that apply.
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST).
Cardiac troponin I (cTnI).
Creatine phosphokinase (CK-MB).
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT).
High-density lipoprotein (HDL).
Question 4Alex is a 20-year-old college student who plays soccer for his university team. Today he unexpectedly collapses on the field. Five minutes later he regains consciousness. Because he has had similar episode before, the nurse practitioner at the university referred him to a cardiologist. Echocardiogram is done and revealed an increase in the mass of the left ventricle and a decrease in its volume, and normal ejection fraction. Based on the clinical presentation, what is the most likely medical diagnosis of Alex?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Myocarditis.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy.
Systolic heart failure.
Question 5Which of the following statements accurately differentiate the pathophysiology of Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) from the pathophysiology of non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)?
Chromosomal translocations occur in NHL but do not occur in HL.
HL spreads by contiguity while NHL is noncontagious.
HL invades multiple peripheral nodes in the body while NHL usually affects localized nodes.
The triggering mechanism for HL is frequent Epstein-Barr viral infection and for NHL is the poor differentiation of T cells into Reed-Sternberg cells.
Question 6A characteristic of Raynaud phenomenon is that is followed by rubor and in the fingers.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
cyanosis; numbness.
nausea; numbness.
numbness; cyanosis.
tingling; cyanosis.
Question 7The mechanism implicated in the pathogenies of the paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is:
Mutation of the hematopoietic stem cells produces red blood cells (RBCs) lacking proteins needed to prevent its destruction.
Mutation in Janus kinases 2 leading to uncontrolled hemolysis and thrombosis.
Autoimmune antibodies attack reticulocytes leading to hemolysis and thrombosis.
Granular deposition of iron in mitochondria within the bone marrow causing a mixed microcytic and macrocytic hemolytic anemia.
Question 8Which of the following statements is correct about the risk factors of hypertension?
Select all that apply.
Women have greater risk for hypertension than men.
Low intake of calcium and potassium increases the risk for hypertension.
Glucose intolerance increases the risk for hypertension.
Asians have greater risk for hypertension than Blacks.
Advanced age increases the risk for hypertension.
Question 9Which statements is true regarding congenital heart defects?
Incidence of heart defects is high in stillbirths, low–birth-weight babies, and spontaneous abortions.
Infants with trisomy 21 have a low incidence of congenital heart disease.
Maternal use of drugs during pregnancy has not been shown to increase congenital heart disease.
The underlying cause of congenital heart disease is known in most cases.
Question 10A patient is referred to an oncologist by his nurse practitioner after she presented with enlarged cervical lymph node for several weeks, unintentional weight loss, fever, and night sweats. The nurse practitioner suspected Hodgkin lymphoma (HL). To detect the featured pathological alteration of HL, the oncologist will do which of the following?
Order a complete blood count to evaluate the RBC, WBC, neutrophils and eosinophils counts.
Order lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) test.
Perform a bone marrow aspiration to detect Reed-Sternberg cells.
Perform a lymph node biopsy to detect Reed-Sternberg cells.
Question 11A patient presents with fever, sore throat, and enlarged lymph nodes. The nurse practitioner suspected infectious mononucleosis and ordered a Monospot test, which came back positive. What does the result of the Monospot test mean?
Different, non-specific types of immunoglobulin M (IgM) have been detected.
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) has been eradicated.
Erythrocytes infected with EBV have been detected.
Hemolytic erythrocytes have been detected.
Question 12Patients with hypertension are at risk for cardiac remodeling. Based on the pathophysiology of the remodeling, which of the following medication classes is the most effective in preventing cardiac remodeling?
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.
Calcium channel blockers.
Digitalis glycosides.
Thiazide diuretics.
Question 13Which of the following statements is correct about the pathophysiology of aplastic anemia (AA)?
AA results from antibodies attacking the bone marrow leading to deficiency in hematopoietic stem cells.
AA is characterized by pancytopenia resulting from deficiencies in iron, folate, and vitamin B12.
AA results from granular deposition of iron in the bone marrow leading to damage of hematopoietic stem cells.
In the bone marrow of a patient with AA it is expected to find increased number of hematopoietic stem cells.
Question 14Cyanosis, followed by rubor and paraesthesias in the digits, are associated with which condition?
Atherosclerosis.
Raynaud phenomenon.
Thromboangiitis obliterans.
Varicose veins
Question 15A patient presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain radiating to his left arm and jaw. The patient has a history of hyperlipidemia. He is diagnosed with an acute coronary syndrome and myocardial infraction (MI) is suspected. Based on the pathophysiology of MI, which of the following findings confirm the diagnosis of MI?
Elevation of B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP).
Elevation of serum troponin.
New onset of hyperglycemia.
ST depression on ECG.
NUR505 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Module 3 Quiz
Question 1Which of the following contributes to the pathogenesis of obesity?
Increased Leptin resistance.
Increased production of adiponectin.
Decreased production of RBP4.
Decreased insulin resistance.
Question 2A 28-day-old infant is brought by his parents to the emergency department due to excessive crying, abdominal distention, and breathing difficulty. The infant was diagnosed with cystic fibrosis at birth. Which of the following explain the new complication the infant is presenting with?
There are inspissation and precipitation of pancreatic secretions causing obstruction of pancreatic ducts.
There are inspissation and precipitation of sinus and bronchial secretions causing pulmonary congestion.
There is an overproduction of pancreatic secretions causing pancreatic autodigestion.
There is an overproduction of vicious pulmonary mucus causing intestinal adhesion.
Question 3Which of the following has not been implicated in the pathogenesis of irritable bowel syndrome?
Serotonin dysregulation.
Bacterial enteritis.
Allergy to lactose.
Gene mutation.
Question 4A 28-year old female patient with a history of cystic fibrosis presents to the emergency department with a productive cough and hemoptysis. A CT- scan is done and reveals “the left main bronchus is markedly dilated.” This radiography description denotes which of the following conditions?
Bronchiectasis.
Bronchomalacia.
Bronchopleural fistula.
Bronchopneumonia.
Question 5A patient has developed left-sided pneumothorax as a result of chest trauma. Based on the pathophysiological consequences of tension pneumothorax, which of the following clinical manifestations is not expected?
Jugular vein distension.
Paradoxical chest movement.
Contralateral trachea deviation.
Left-sided hyper-resonance.
Question 6Which of the following statements is correct about tension pneumothorax?
The pathophysiologic effects of tension pneumothorax are self-limited.
As more air enters the pleural space, the trachea deviates toward the collapsed lung.
In complicated tension pneumothorax, cardiac output and blood pressure drop below normal parameters.
In tension pneumothorax, percussion on the collapsed lung side reveal dullness.
Question 7Which of the following statements is correct regarding the different features of ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn disease (CD)?
Granulomas are commonly seen on CD but rarely seen in UC.
CD affects the entire GI tract with no skip lesions, while UC affects colon and rectum with skip lesions.
Genetics is a major risk factor in UC which is why it greatly increases the risk for color cancer compared with CD.
Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies are commonly seen on CD but rarely seen in UC.
Question 8A histology report of a patient with a history of chronic bloody diarrhea reads “erythematous mucosa, with ulceration and uniform inflammation extending from the rectum the sigmoid colon.” These endoscopic findings are consistent with the pathophysiology of which of the following disease?
Ulcerative colitis.
Crohn’s disease.
Diverticulitis.
Colorectal cancer.
Question 9To restore the function of the pleural cavity altered by pneumothorax, which of the following therapies should be used?
Chest tube with a water-seal drainage system.
Ultrasound-guided thoracentesis.
Aggressive diuretics therapy.
Regular chest physiotherapy.
Question 10The chest radiography report of a patient with pneumonia reads “increased density with ill-defined borders in the left lung.” Which of the following explains the pathophysiology of the radiology finding?
The affected alveoli are filled with pus.
The affected alveoli have collapsed.
Air is trapped in the affected alveoli.
The affected alveoli have ruptured.
Question 11A 50-year-old overweight male is complaining of heartburn for four months. He describes burning in his chest brought on by fatty or spicy meals which are associated with belching and coughing. No dysphagia, odynophagia, or hematemesis. Which of the following is the most effective for symptom management of this patient?
Prevacid (lansoprazole) 15 mg daily.
Erythromycin 250 mg daily.
Advil (ibuprofen) 400 mg daily.
Meta-mucil (fibers) 2 capsules daily.
Question 12When an asthmatic patient inhales an antigen, it binds to which then degranulate and release , which then capillary permeability leading to edema and stimulates to produce airway mucus secretion.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
Mast cells, interleukins, increases, goblet cells.
Mast cells, histamine, decreases, IgE.
Mast cells, goblet cells, increase, prostaglandin.
Mast cells, prostaglandin, decreases, IgE.
Question 13A patient is hospitalized for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) due to acute lung injury (ALI). Based on the pathophysiology of ARDS, which of the following findings is specific to ARDS?
Low PaO2/FiO2 ratio.
Unilateral alveolar infiltrates.
Low erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
High B-type natriuretic peptide.
Question 14When liver cirrhosis develops, it the portal blood pressure, which causes splanchnic leading to plasma volume.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
Increases, vasodilation, decreased.
Increases, vasocontraction, increased.
Decreases, vasodilation, increased.
Decreases, vasocontraction, decreased.
Question 15In pneumococcal pneumonia, initially, Streptococcus pneumoniae is aspirated. The alveolar recognize it and activate the which release chemical mediators to recruit to form phagolysosomes and kill the microbes.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
Macrophages, T and B cells, neutrophils.
Neutrophils, T and B cells, macrophages.
T and B cells, neutrophils, macrophages.
Macrophages, neutrophils, T and B cells.
NUR505 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Module 4 Quiz
Question 1Which of the following is a classical ECG finding in case of hypokalemia?
The amplitude of the T wave is increased.
The amplitude of the U wave is increased.
The amplitude of the ST segment is elevated.
The length of the PR interval is decreased.
Question 2Which of the following does not increase the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI)?
Female gender.
Low urine potential of hydrogen (pH).
Low urine osmolality.
Diabetes mellitus.
Question 3Which of the following statements is correct about renal stones?
The great majority of renal stones are caused by phosphate precipitation.
Women are at higher risk for renal stones than men.
Struvite stones result from recurrent urinary tract infections.
Stones measure 1 cm to 1.5 cm pass the ureters spontaneously.
Question 4Calcium gluconate is used in cases of hyperkalemia. How does it work?
It enhances to potassium excretion from the renal tubules.
It counteracts potassium effects on cardiac muscles.
It enhances potassium shift from plasma into cells.
It enhances potassium excretion through the GI tract.
Question 5How does severe serum hypokalemia affect the cardiac muscles?
It decreases the membranes excitability leading to delayed ventricular repolarization.
It decreases the membranes excitability leading to rapid ventricular repolarization.
It increases the membranes excitability leading to paroxysmal atrial dysrhythmias.
It increases the membranes excitability leading to supraventricular dysrhythmias.
Question 6 sign is explained as follows: serum calcium leads to excitability of the facial nerve so if you tap below the temple the lip would twitch.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
Chvostek; low; increased.
Chvostek; high; decreased.
Trousseau; low; increased.
Trousseau; high; increased.
Question 7Which of the following renal cancers has the worst prognosis according to the staging system?
T2, N0, M0.
T3, N1, M0.
T2, N3, M1.
T4, N1, M0.
Question 8Which of the following is a classical ECG finding in case of hyperkalemia?
The amplitude of the T wave is decreased.
The amplitude of the U wave is increased.
The width of the QRS complex is decreased.
The length of the PR interval is increased.
Question 9 sign in the figure below is explained as follows: serum calcium leads to excitability of the nerves in the arm exacerbated by ischemia induced by the cuff pressure.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
Trousseau; low; increased.
Trousseau; high; decreased.
Chvostek; low; decreased.
Chvostek; high; increased.
Question 10A 58-year-old woman with history of neurologic bladder presents to the emergency room complaining of right-sided back pain and fever. She uses urinary catheterization regularly due to persistent urine retention. Urinalysis shows numerous white blood cell (WBC), positive leukesterase, and urine potential of hydrogen (pH) of 7.33. Based on these findings, which of the following statements is correct?
The patient has asymptomatic bacteriuria and does not require treatment.
Antibiotics that treat Proteus infections should be prescribed.
The presence of leukesterase rules out urinary tract infection.
The patient’s urine pH lowers the risk for renal stones.
Question 11A 3-year-old boy who has developed puffy eyes and bilateral lower extremity edema is brought by his mother to the emergency room. The boy was diagnosed with hepatitis B infection at the age of 7 months. His laboratory studies show a serum albumin level of 2.2 grams per deciliter (g/dL) and 4+ protein and no blood on urinalysis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Acute glomerulonephritis associated with nephrotic syndrome.
Acute glomerulonephritis associated with nephritic syndrome.
Acute pyelonephritis associated with nephrotic syndrome.
Acute pyelonephritis associated with nephritic syndrome.
Question 12In cases of hypoparathyroidism, renal activation of vitamin D, reabsorption of , and excretion of are all .
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
Calcium; phosphorus; decreased.
Calcium; phosphorus; increased.
Phosphorus; calcium; decreased.
Phosphorus; calcium; increased.
Question 13A diabetic patient is hospitalized due to diabetic ketoacidosis. In his initial ABG results, which of the following is not expected?
Serum pH is less than 7.35.
Anion gap is lower than 10 milliequivalent (mEq)/L.
Bicarbonate is less than milliequivalent (mEq)/L.
PaCO2 is lower than 35 millimeters of mercury (mmHg).
Question 14Which of the following can lead to serum hyperkalemia?
Hypoxia.
Alkalosis.
Hypoinsulinemia.
Angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.
Question 15A patient is hospitalized post head trauma. He has developed diabetes insipidus and has produced a total of 8 liters of urine in the last 24 hours. When reviewing the laboratory results of this patient, which of the following is expected to be found?
Serum sodium level is 122 milliequivalent (mEq)/L.
Serum chloride level is 82 milliequivalent (mEq)/L.
Hematocrit level is 26%.
Specific gravity level is 1.035.
NUR505 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Module 5 Quiz
Question 1A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents for her follow-up at 28-week gestation. Her random plasma glucose in the previous visit was 142 mg/dL. This visit, her 2-hour glucose tolerance test resulted in 211 mg/dL. As a result, what is the most potential complication for this patient?
Type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Low birth weight.
Spina bifida.
Question 2Which of the following can decrease the production of prolactin pathologically?
Prolactinomas.
Liver cirrhosis.
Hyperthyroidism.
Dopamine agonists.
Question 3Which of the following patients has the highest risk for developing diabetes mellitus?
A patient with hemoglobin A1C of 6.5%.
A patient with fasting plasma glucose of 120 mg/dL.
A patient with 180 mg/dL plasma glucose during OGTT .
A patient with polyuria and plasma glucose of 88 mg/dL.
Question 4Which of the following is not expected to be found in a patient with diabetes ketoacidosis?
Plasma glucose level of 290 mg/dL.
Serum pH level of 7.31.
Serum bicarbonate of 26 mEq/L.
Urine 50 mg/dL.
Question 5Which of the following is correct about the pathophysiology of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
The incidence of BPH decreases with advancing age.
BPH depends on the androgen dihydrotestosterone level.
BPH lowers the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level.
BPH greatly increases the risk for prostate cancer.
Question 6How does thyrotoxicosis affect the endocrine functions?
It decreases cortisol degradation.
It decreases bone resorption.
It decreases insulin sensitivity.
It decreases parathyroid hormone level.
Question 7Polycystic ovary syndrome (POS) is characterized by excessive production of which of the following?
Androgen and estrogen.
Androgen and progesterone.
Prostaglandin and estrogen.
Progesterone and estrogen.
Question 8Which of the following is correct about the relationship of cervical cancer and human papillomavirus (HPV) infection?
HPV infections are responsible for 40% of cervical cancer cases.
The incidence of HPV infections increases as women age due to anatomic changes.
Young women have a greater risk for cervical oncogenic HPV infections.
Most types of HPV infections have been found to be cervical oncogenic.
Question 9Which of the following is correct about the pathophysiology of ovarian cancer?
Abnormal vaginal bleeding is an early sign of ovarian cancer.
Factors that suppress ovulation increase the risk of ovarian cancer.
It is documented that the great majority of ovarian cancers are familial.
There are no specific or cardinal symptoms of ovarian cancer.
Question 10In females, hyperprolactinemia the production of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), which leads to level of FHS causing .
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
decreases; decreased; anovulation.
decreases; decreased; dysmenorrhea.
increases; decreased; anovulation.
increases; increased; dysmenorrhea.
Question 11Women who do no ovulate will have more and less . This imbalance leads to .
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
estrogen; progesterone; uterine hyperplasia.
estrogen; progesterone; uterine atrophy.
progesterone; estrogen; uterine hyperplasia.
progesterone; estrogen; uterine atrophy.
Question 12When insulin is deficient, the lipolysis is , which stimulates the liver to increase its , which worsens the hyperglycemia.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
Increased; glyconeogenesis.
Increased; glycolysis.
Decreased; glyconeogenesis.
Decreased; glycolysis.
Question 13When you perform cardiovascular assessment on a patient with Grave’s disease, which of the following manifestations do you expect to find?
Hypotension; tachycardia; loud first heart sound (S1), second heart sound (S2).
Hypotension; tachycardia; atrial dysrhythmias.
Hypertension; muffled heart sounds; third heart sound (S3) gallop.
Tachycardia; displaced apical pulse; loud (first heart sound (S1), second heart sound (S2).
Question 14 Patients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) present with symptoms associated with which of the following?
Serum hyponatremia.
Serum hyperosmolality.
Serum acidemia.
Serum hyperaldosteronisms.
Question 15A 28-year-old woman who has been unable to conceive presents at a clinic. Diagnostic tests are ordered and revealed negative serum hCG, normal TSH, normal prolactin, and high FSH. The pathophysiology of these findings is affecting which of the following?
Thyroid gland.
Hypothalamus.
Ovaries.
Pituitary gland.
NUR505 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Module 6 Quiz
Question 1 is a rare complication of muscle injury where fibroblasts abnormally developed into osteoblasts.
Myositis ossification.
Paratenonitis.
Tendinosis.
Rhabdomyolosis.
Question 2Which of the following is correct about fungal infections in children?
Tinea pedis is the most common fungal infection in children.
Fungal infections in children are self-limiting and not contagious.
Tinea capitis affects the non-hairy parts of the child’s body.
Cats and dogs are common hosts and sources of tinea corporis.
Question 3Which of the following is incorrect about psoriasis?
Psoriasis is a chronic, relapsing, inflammatory disorder.
Psoriasis is more common in Asians than Caucasians.
Psoriasis pathogenesis involves T-cell immune response.
Psoriasis affects both the dermis and epidermis.
Question 4 is the most serious electrolyte imbalance that occurs in rhabdomyolosis and requires immediate management.
Hyperkalemia.
Hypokalemia.
Hypocalcemia.
Hyperphosphatemia.
Question 5Which of the following represents the pathogenesis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
Genetic defect leading to increased levels of dystrophin.
Genetic defect leading to no change in levels of dystrophin.
Genetic defect leading to complete lack of dystrophin.
Genetic defect leading to mutated dystrophin.
Question 6Which of the following is correct about the pathophysiology of skin squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)?
The hands are the most common affected by SCC.
Immunosuppressant agents increase SCC incidence.
SCC is an in-situ tumor with no ability to metastasize.
SCC commonly rise from melanocytes of the skin.
Question 7Which of the following are cardinal morphological feature of psoriasis vulgaris plaque? Select all that apply.
Well-defined margins.
Gray and scaly.
Dry and flaky.
Erythematous.
Irregular edges
Question 8 The pathogenesis of rheumatic arthritis involves chronic autoimmune reaction to an antigen in which cytokines stimulates fibroblasts to which result in converting synovial fluid into a thick, abnormal granulation tissues known as .
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
increase in number; pannus.
increase in number; trophi.
decrease in number; pannus.
decrease in number; trophi.
Question 9A young female patient presents to her dermatologist reporting a new itchy skin rash. On her thighs and abdomen are clusters of small painless pustules overlying an erythematous base. Based on the description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Folliculitis.
Cellulitis.
Impetigo.
Warts.
Question 10Which of the following is incorrect about osteosarcoma?
It is the most common malignant primary bone tumor.
It is the least aggressive form of bone tumors.
It affects young adults more than older adults.
It mainly affects long bones.
Question 11How does estrogen help preventing osteoporosis?
Estrogen increases osteoprotegerin (OPG) production, which inhibits osteoclasts activity.
Estrogen increases osteoprotegerin (OPG) production, which inhibits osteoblasts activity.
Estrogen decreases osteoprotegerin (OPG) production, which inhibits osteoclasts activity.
Estrogen decreases osteoprotegerin (OPG) production, which inhibits osteoblasts activity.
Question 12A 3-year-old boy is brought to a clinic by his mother due to a new itchy rash on the boy’s face. There is weeping from the rash with honey-colored crust overlying multiple vesicles. The boy stays at a daycare during the day when the mother is at work. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Impetigo.
Tinea capitis.
Varicella.
Scabies.
Question 13All of the following can aggravate osteoporosis by reducing osteoprotegerin (OPG) production and increasing cytokine receptor activator of nuclear factor κβ ligand (RANKL) except:
Leptin.
Prostaglandin E2.
Glucocorticoids.
Parathyroid hormone.
Question 14What is the role of the cytokine receptor activator of nuclear factor ?ß ligand (RANKL) in osteoporosis?
RANKL increases the activity and survival of osteoclasts.
RANKL increases the activity and survival of osteoblasts.
RANKL decreases the activity and survival of osteoclasts.
RANKL decreases the activity and survival of osteoblasts.
Question 15 occurs when the ends of a fractured bone fail to grow together and form fibrous tissue in between.
Nonunion.
Delayed union.
Malunion.
Subluxation.
NUR505 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Module 7 Quiz
Question 1A patient sustained a spinal cord injury has developed autonomic hyperreflexia (dysreflexia). Which of the following must be given to prevent possible complications?
A short-acting antihypertensive.
Norepineprine.
Lasix.
Vancomycin.
Question 2The pathogenesis of Alzheimer disease involves accumulation of protein leading for formation of , which is the major pathological hallmark of Alzheimer disease.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
amyloid beta; neuritic plaque.
gamma secretase; neurofibrillary tangle.
tau; neuritic plaque.
Alpha-synuclein; Lewy bodies.
Question 3Which of the following statements is false about the differences between bacterial meningitis and viral meningitis?
Bacterial meningitis affects the pia matter, subarachnoid space, and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) while viral infection is limited to the meninges.
The clinical manifestations of bacterial meningitis are mild and localized while those of viral infections are severe and systemic.
Bacterial meningitis treatment requires antibiotic while viral meningitis treatment generally requires supportive care.
Intracranial pressure (ICP) increases in bacterial meningitis due to edema. In viral meningitis, edema does not develop and ICP is normal.
Question 4Which of the following is a manifestation of metabolic alterations in arousal?
Asymmetric, non-reactive pupils.
Absent response to Babinski sign.
Absent deep tendon reflexes.
Asymmetric sensation in limbs.
Question 5A child is diagnosed with pyramidal/spastic cerebral palsy. Which of the following manifestations is not consistent with the diagnosis?
Increased muscle tone.
Prolonged primitive reflexes.
Scoliosis and contractures.
Jerky, involuntary movement.
Question 6Which of the following is correct about cluster breathing?
It is associated with dysfunction of the medulla.
It is characterized by rapid breathing with irregular apnea.
It is characterized by sustained slow but regular breathing.
It is associated with lesions above the midbrain.
Question 7Which of the following is not part of Alzheimer disease pathophysiology?
Brain atrophy.
Enlarged ventricles.
Acetylcholine loss.
Dopamine loss.
Question 8Which of the following is correct about the pathogenesis of bacterial meningitis?
Haemophilus influenza is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis.
Meningococcal meningitis occurs predominantly among females.
Pneumococcal meningitis occurs predominantly among older adults.
Bacterial meningitis is limited to the meninges and is not found in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Question 9Which of the following is correct about the pathogenesis of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
In MS, there are inflammatory changes that affects white matter of the central nervous system but not gray matter.
In MS, there is inflammatory changes in the central nervous system that leads to irreversible demyelination.
The inflammatory changes in MS are limited to specific areas of the central nervous system.
The great majority of patients with MS presents with a primary progressive course of the disease.
Question 10Guillian-Barré syndrome is inflammatory demyelinating disease with motor signs that manifest progressive paralysis.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
An acute; Ascending.
An acute; Descending.
A chronic; Ascending.
A chronic; Descending.
Question 11As a result of spinal cord injury, the central communication with spiral nerves are disturbed leading to a transient and impaired thermal regulation.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
sympathetic; hypotension.
sympathetic; increased preload.
parasympathetic; hypotension.
parasympathetic; increased preload.
Question 12Which of the following is correct about multiple sclerosis (MS)?
MS is an autoimmune disease and occurs predominantly among elderly.
MS is a progressive disease affecting more men than women.
MS is not hereditary disease but family history increases its risk.
MS is a chronic disease affecting blacks and Asians more than whites.
Question 13Guillian-Barré syndrome is an autoimmune disease characterized by demyelination of the .
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
rapid; peripheral nerves.
slow; brain cells.
rapid; spinal cord.
progressive; spinal cord.
Question 14What is the test of choice used to identify the progression of multiple sclerosis?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis.
White blood cells with differential.
Serial electroencephalography.
Question 15Ataxic respirations are irregular with prolonged periods of associated with damage to the .
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
apnea; medulla.
hyperventilation; cortex.
hypoventilation; pons.
apnea; cranial nerve nine (CN) IX.
NUR505 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Module 8 Quiz
Question 1Which of the following is not a result of gluconeogenesis in shock?
Increased lactic acid.
Increased uric acid.
Increased heart rate.
Interstitial edema.
Question 2Which of the following is not a characteristic of cold shock in children?
Peripheral vasoconstriction.
Prolonged capillary refill.
Decreased peripheral pulses.
Wide pulse pressure.
Question 3In shock, cells switch to anaerobic metabolism. Which of the following is not a consequence of anaerobic metabolism?
Lactic acid forms causing acute metabolic acidosis.
Cells get less efficient energy and consume more acute thrombocytopenic purpura (ATP).
Lysosomal enzymes are released causing cellular injuries.
Protein metabolism decreases leading to low oncotic pressure.
Question 4What is the best diagnostic test of choice to identify the severity of hypoperfusion?
Serum lactic acid.
Central venous pressure.
Heart rate.
Urine output.
Question 5Which is the most common site of sepsis in children?
Gastrointestinal tract.
Urinary tract.
Primary bloodstream.
Respiratory tract.
Question 6Primary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is the response to the triggering event while secondary MODS is the response that develops and results in organ dysfunction.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
immediate and mild; latent and severe.
immediate and severe; latent and mild.
latent and mild; immediate and severe.
latent and severe; immediate and mild.
Question 7A patient with spinal cord injury is experiencing neurogenic shock. The patient is shivering. Which of the following explains that symptom?
Correct!
Loss of sympathetic tone ? vasodilation ? impaired thermoregulation ? hypothermia.
Loss of sympathetic tone ? vasodilation ? impaired thermoregulation ? hyperthermia.
Loss of sympathetic tone ? vasoconstriction ? impaired thermoregulation ? hypothermia.
Loss of sympathetic tone ? vasoconstriction ? impaired thermoregulation ? hyperthermia.
Question 8What is the medication of choice that can reverse multiple symptoms of the anaphylactic shock?
Epinephrine.
Cortisone.
Bicarbonate.
Dopamine.
Question 9What is the most common type of shock in children?
Septic.
Neurogenic.
Anaphylactic.
Hypovolemic.
Question 10Which of the following is not a trigger of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
Maldistribution of blood flow.
Hypometabolism.
Myocardial depression.
Cellular hypoxia.
Question 11Which of the following is true about the pathophysiology of neurogenic shock?
The sympathetic nervous system is overstimulated.
The systematic vascular resistance is lower than normal.
The central vascular pressure is higher than normal.
The parasympathetic nervous system is under stimulated.
Question 12Which of the following types of shock does not involve low systemic vascular resistance?
Septic.
Neurogenic.
Anaphylactic.
Cardiogenic.
Question 13What is the most sensitive indicator of inadequate perfusion in children?
Serum lactic acid.
Central venous pressure.
Heart rate.
Urine output.
Question 14Which of the following is induced by metabolic acidosis in sepsis?
Increased nitic oxide level in the plasma.
Increased serum antidiuretic hormone level.
Decreased hydrogen ions in vessels walls.
Decreased lactate level in vessels walls.
Question 15Primary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is the progressive dysfunction of or more organ systems resulting from a inflammatory response.
Select the option with the appropriate terms to fill in the spaces.
two; local.
two; local.
three; systemic.
three; local.
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