A 20-year-old patient with no significant past history presents to the clinic for evaluation of a 1-day history of dysuria

A 20-year-old patient with no significant past history presents to the clinic for evaluation of a 1-day history of dysuria, lower abdominal discomfort, and urinary frequency and urgency. She notes a strong odor to her urine but reports no change in its appearance. She reports no vaginal discharge or fever. Review of systems is otherwise negative. The patient denies sexual activity and reports normal menses. There are no known allergies. Physical examination is normal other than mild suprapubic tenderness upon palpation. Urinalysis shows no significant abnormality and urine HCG is negative. Which of the following would be the next best step in her clinical management? A. Await urine culture results before any treatment B. Initiate antibiotic treatment while awaiting urine culture results C. Insist that a pelvic exam and cervical DNA probe be performed today D. Reassure that this is not a urinary tract infection E. Urine DNA probe