A 58-year-old patient presents to the clinic with intermittent right upper quadrant pain. The patient has a history of hypertension
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Get it written →A 58-year-old patient presents to the clinic with intermittent right upper quadrant pain. The patient has a history of hypertension and GERD but reports no past surgeries. The patient is afebrile and hemodynamically stable. An abdominal exam reveals a positive Murphy’s sign, but the remainder of the abdominal exam is normal or unremarkable. What would be the next best step to confirm your working diagnosis? A. Abdominal ultrasound (US) B. Blood tests for liver diseases (AST, ALT, alkaline phosphatase) C. Complete blood count D. CT abdomen with contrast E. CT abdomen without contra
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