CHIEME JONGO.
CHIEME JONGO.
FINAL EXAM
This is an “open-book” exam, meaning that you may use your course materials (Videos, Discussions, and other resources). However, you are on your honor to do your own work and NOT TO CONSULT EACH OTHER. You will have three days to complete the exam. Based on experience with students in previous classes, if you wait until the last minute to work on the exam, you can expect to receive a poor grade. For proper format, first label your Final Exam at the top of your assignment. Then create two numerical lists: from 1 to 25 and from 26 to 50 (for the multiple-choice) and place the letter of your choice next to each number; from 1 to 4 (for the essay) followed by your for each essay. Submit your s by submitting them in the Final Exam Assignment Folder” by 11:59 p.m. on December 18. Good Luck!
Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the BEST . Each question is worth 1 point.
1) The man who played a key role in the emergence of biopsychology as a discipline by writing “The Organization of Behavior” is
A) Sperry.
B) Hebb.
C) Lashley.
D) Milner.
E) Pinel.
2) Neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are part of the
A) somatic nervous system.
B) basal ganglia.
C) ANS.
D) peripheral nervous system.
E) both C and D.
3) CNS is to PNS as oligodendrocytes are to
A) astrocytes.
B) oligodendroglia.
C) glial cells.
D) Schwann cells.
E) microglia.
4) Na+ ions are continuously forced into neurons by
A) their high internal concentration.
B) their high external concentration.
C) the negative resting potential.
D) both B and C
E) none of the above
5) Which of the following events restores the membrane potential from the peak of the action potential back down to the resting level?
A) Sodium ions move into the cell.
B) Potassium ions move out of the cell.
C) Potassium ions move into the cell.
D) Chloride ions move into the cell.
E) Protein anions move out of the cell.
6) Communication of neural signals across the synapse involves
A) the opening of transmitter -gated channels in the axon terminal.
B) voltage changes that open chloride channels in the presynaptic membrane.
C) vesicles that take up transmitter molecules into the axon terminal .
D) the binding of transmitter at postsynaptic receptors triggering membrane potentials.( D
E) direct electrical contact of the pre- and post-synaptic membranes.
Difficulty: 2
7) Which is considered to be the most prevalent inhibitory neurotransmitter in the mammalian CNS?
A) glycine
B) GABA
C) glutamate
D) serotonin
E) dopamine
8) ________ refers to the capacity of a drug molecule to bind to a key site of action.
A) Dissociation
B) Sensitization
C) Inactivation
D) Affinity
E) Tolerance
9) A drug that binds with high affinity to a receptor, but has less efficacy than the endogenous transmitter, would be termed a(n)
A) pseudo-agonist
B) antagonist.
C) partial agonist.
D) autoreceptor agonist.
E) autoreceptor antagonist.
10) Select the correct sequence for processing of information in the primary visual pathway:
A) retina – > dorsal lateral geniculate (LGN) -> striate cortex.
B) retina -> striate cortex -> extrastriate cortex -> inferior temporal cortex
C) LGN -> retina -> striate cortex -> primary visual cortex
D) retina -> LGN -> inferior temporal cortex -> amygdala
E) LGN-> frontal cortex -> amygdala -> extrastriate cortex
11) Retinal disparity is necessary for the process of
A) brightness sensitivity.
B) perception of negative afterimages.
C) relative retinal size.
D) stereopsis.
E) blue-yellow color vision.
12) Action potentials are produced by the
A) opening of voltage-activated sodium channels.
B) closing of ligand-activated chloride channels.
C) closing of ligand-activated potassium channels.
D) opening of ligand-activated potassium channels.
E) closing of voltage-activated calcium channels.
13) The mechanical stimulus that induces movements of the hair cells is the
A) movement of the stapes against the oval window.
B) contraction of the muscle fibers within the middle ear.
C) movement of the malleus against the round window.
D) movement of the stapes against the round window.
E) movement of the scala tympani.
14) Which of the following is true of rate coding along the basilar membrane?
A) Rate coding occurs for frequencies greater than 500 Hz.
B) The basal end of the basilar membrane shows the greatest movement to a frequency of less than 200 Hz.
C) Frequencies lower than 200 Hz are coded by a rate of firing that is cued to the movement of the apical end of the basilar membrane.
D) Cochlear implants can be used to signal frequencies of 200-2000 Hz.
E) Damage to outer hair cells improve pitch discrimination.
15) ________ detect changes in temperature and pain.
A) Ruffini corpuscles
B) Free nerve endings
C) Meissner’s corpuscles
D) Pacinian corpuscles
E) Dieter’s cells
16) Cutaneous receptors signal information about stimuli that interact with
A) the external surface of the skin.
B) the hair cells of the vestibular sacs.
C) receptors of the muscles.
D) receptors that line the surfaces of internal organs.
E) muscles of the gut.
17) Sleep stages 1-4 are termed ________, whereas stages 3-4 are referred to as ________.
A) REM sleep; non-REM sleep
B) non-REM sleep; slow-wave sleep
C) slow-wave sleep; non-REM sleep
D) paradoxical sleep; REM sleep
E) arythmic sleep; paradoxical sleep
18) Which of the following is a key characteristic of non-REM sleep?
A) dreaming in color
B) muscle paralysis
C) genital changes associated with arousal
D) various forms of slow-wave brain activity
E) rapid eye movements
19) Nightmares that are particularly terrifying occur during ________ sleep.
A) stage 1 of slow-wave
B) high-frequency
C) stage 4 of slow-wave
D) paradoxical
E) REM
20) The occurrence of sleep attacks in narcolepsy can be alleviated by drugs that
A) impair the release of hypocretins in the brain.
B) facilitate brain serotonin synaptic activity.
C) act as catecholamine agonists.
D) facilitate both serotonin and catecholamine brain activity.
E) block hypocretin 2 receptors in the hypothalamus.
21) Weight gain is a common outcome for a person suffering from
A) anorexia nervosa.
B) somnabulimia.
C) sleep-related eating disorder.
D) hyperbulimia.
E) REM sleep behavior disorder.
22) Recent research suggests that ________ sleep is important for ________ memory.
A) slow-wave; nondeclarative
B) REM; sensory
C) REM; declarative
D) slow-wave; sensory
E) REM; nondeclarative( E)
23) A key source of noradrenergic neurons in the brain is the
A) nucleus accumbens.
B) hippocampus.
C) raphe nuclei.
D) striatum.
E) locus coeruleus.( E)
24) Which statement best illustrates the James-Lange theory of emotion?
A) Feeling happy causes you to laugh.
B) Laugh and you will be happy.
C) Happiness is the result of excessive release of endorphins.
D) Your frontal lobe causes you to feel happy; your motor cortex causes you to laugh.
E) Feeling happy induces the species-typical reaction we call laughter.
25) Damage to the ________ would be expected to disrupt the integration of fear.
A) thalamus
B) medial hypothalamus
C) orbitofrontal cortex
D) amygdala
E) reticular activating system
26) Phineas Gage, who was injured when a steel rod was accidentally driven through his skull, exhibited capricious, emotional behavior (in part) as a result of widespread damage to his
A) occipital cortex.
B) ventromedial prefrontal cortex.
C) cingulate cortex.
D) primary motor cortex.
E) primary sensory cortex.
27) The primary source of our knowledge about the physiology of language is studies of
A) blood flow to language areas in intact, normal people while they are talking.
B) non-human primates.
C) people who have suffered brain lesions.
D) patients with brain tumors.
E) changes in verbal behavior after the consumption of drugs such as alcohol.
28) ________ is a primary disturbance in comprehension or production of speech that is caused by brain damage.
A) Agraphia
B) Autism
C) Aphasia
D) Alexia
E) Dysgraphia
29) The primary difficulty noted in Broca’s aphasia involves
A) understanding speech.
B) spelling simple words.
C) saying content words.
D) producing speech.
E) recognizing the emotional content of speech.
30) Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by damage to the
A) inferior insular gyrus of the right hemisphere.
B) Broca’s area.
C) superior temporal gyrus of the left hemisphere.
D) inferior occipital cortex.
E) frontal association cortex of the right hemisphere.
31) The incidence of schizophrenia in the world population is approximately ________ percent.
A) 0.1
B) 1
C) 5
D) 12
E) 15
32) The phrase “split mind” as it refers to schizophrenia means
A) multiple personalities.
B) delusional thinking.
C) a separation of thoughts and feelings.
D) extreme sadness in the presence of mania.
E) an inability to make important decisions.
33) Brain damage is thought to produce the ________ symptoms of schizophrenia.
A) positive
B) concordant
C) cognitive
D) negative
E) mood
34) Complications of prenatal development and delivery are more likely to result in
A) depression.
B) anxiety disorder.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) early-onset schizophrenia.
E) agoraphobia.
35) With regard to the genetic basis of schizophrenia
A) a person with a “schizophrenia gene” will always develop schizophrenia.
B) the concordance rate for schizophrenia is lower for monozygotic than dizygotic twins.
C) adoption studies indicate a biological basis for schizophrenia.
D) several genes may be involved in schizophrenia.
E) genes impart a susceptibility to develop schizophrenia.( E)
36) An increased risk of developing schizophrenia is associated with
A) the mother experiencing obstetric complications.
B) being born during the late summer months.
C) a child born to a mother who experienced alcohol withdrawal.
D) having an elderly father.
E) being born in the fall months.
37) The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia states that schizophrenia is caused by
A) low levels of one or more of the monoamines.
B) a breakdown product of the neurotransmitter serotonin.
C) overactivity of dopaminergic synapses.
D) damage to ascending dopamine fibers.
E) an imbalance between acetylcholine and dopamine within the frontal cortex.
38) Which of the following supports the contention that schizophrenia is associated with brain damage?
A) Control subjects are more likely to show neurological symptoms.
B) The size of the lateral ventricles increases in schizophrenic patients.
C) The neurological symptoms noted in schizophrenia are unique to this disorder.
D) The size of the lateral ventricles decreases in schizophrenic patients.
E) Older people, who have already lost substantial numbers of neurons, are more likely to develop schizophrenia than are younger people.
39) Which of the following supports the notion that impairment of the prefrontal cortex is related to the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
A MRI studies indicate abnormalities within the temporal cortex of schizophrenics.
B) Schizophrenic patients show greater activity of the frontal cortex than do controls.
C) Schizophrenic patients do poorly on neuropsychological tests that are sensitive to damage of the prefrontal cortex.
D) MRI studies indicate abnormalities within the parietal cortex of schizophrenics.
E) Schizophrenic patients show a greater number of neurons within the gray matter of the frontal cortex.
40) The best evidence that there is a difference between bipolar affective disorder and unipolar depression is that
A) the age of onset differs between the two disorders.
B) there is a sex difference in the incidence of these disorders.
C) lithium is effective in treating only bipolar disorder.
D) chlorpromazine is only effective in treating unipolar depression.
E) serotonin reuptake inhibitors are effective for bipolar disorder but not unipolar depression.
41) A person with severe depression is at greater risk for
A) serious cardiac disease.
B) death by suicide.
C) poor grooming habits.
D) loss of norepinephrine cells within the prefrontal cortex.
E) developing major delusions and unhealthy compulsions.
42) Susceptibility to develop affective disorder is most strongly associated with
A) the gene for the dopamine transporter.
B) multiple genes on multiple chromosomes.
C) a gene located on chromosome 11.
D) specific chromosomes linked to sleep and circadian rhythms.
E) a gene located on the Y chromosome.
43) ________ is (are) an effective treatment for bipolar depression.
A) Lithium
B) Drugs that inhibit MAO
C) Drugs that block the reuptake of serotonin or norepinephrine
D) Sleep deprivation
E) Electroconvulsive shock therapy
44) Drugs that inhibit the activity of monoamine oxidase (MAO)
A) can result in excess levels of glycine in terminal buttons.
B) can result in excess levels of serotonin within terminal buttons.
C) are an effective treatment for depression.
D) can have minor side effects.
E) can induce schizophrenia.
45) A major difference between electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT) and treatment using antidepressant drugs is that
A) antidepressant drugs act more rapidly to lift depression than does ECT.
B) antidepressant drugs are more likely to impair memory.
C) ECT has fewer dangerous side effects.
D) ECT lifts depression faster than do antidepressant drugs.
E) antidepressant drugs may work in depressed persons who do not respond to ECT.
46) The monoamine hypothesis states that depression is caused by
A) loss of cells within the prefrontal cortex.
B) insufficient activity of monoaminergic neurons.
C) excessive activity of dopamine synapses.
D) overactivity of monoaminergic neurons
E) excessive activity of serotonin synapses.
47) The magnitude of depression is related to
A) activation of the orbitofrontal cortex.
B) activation of the amygdala.
C) reduced volume of the brain ventricles.
D) enhanced activation of the subgenual prefrontal cortex.
E) greater activity of the medial forebrain bundle system.
48) Which of the following best describes the changes in sleep that occur during depression?
A) Slow-wave sleep stages 3 and 4 are reduced and stage 1 sleep is increased.
B) Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is abolished.
C) All phases of slow-phase sleep are increased, while REM sleep is reduced.
D) REM occurs in higher proportion later in the night.
E) Depressed people are more likely to awaken in the first half of the night.
49) Moniz suggested that the prefrontal lobotomy procedure might offer a surgical means to
A) eliminate anxiety states
B) improve cognitive function.
C) attenuate stress-induced headaches.
D) eliminate insomnia.
E) produce weight loss.
50) The most effective treatments for panic disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder are
A) MAO inhibitor drugs.
B) tricyclic antidepressant drugs.
C) specific serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
D) ethyl alcohol.
E) cocaine-like drugs.
Essay Questions
THE FOLLOWING FOUR (4) QUESTIONS. USE YOUR OWN WORDS AND BE SURE TO THE QUESTIONS COMPLETELY. Each question is worth 5 points.
51) Describe the major memory deficits suffered by Patient H.M. following bilateral temporal lobectomy. Describe two specific abilities that were spared in Patient H.M.
52) Describe the types of evidence that support the proposition that alteration of prenatal development can contribute to the causation of schizophrenia.
53) Describe the monoamine hypothesis of depression and discuss evidence that supports this hypothesis.
54) Explain the history and rationale of the lobotomy procedure.
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